GATE Exam Papers - (Computer Science) - Part 8

Que. 1 A relation R is defined on the set of integers as x Ry if f(x + y) is
even. Which of the following statements is true?
A R is not an equivalence relation
B R is an equivalence relation having 1 equivalence class
C R is an equivalence relation having 2 equivalence classes
D R is an equivalence relation having 3 equivalence classes

Que. 2 Let a, b, c, d be propositions. Assume that the equivalences a<-> (b
V-b) and b<->c hold. Then the truth value of the formula (a Ù b) -J. (a
Ù c) Ù d) is always
A True
B False
C Same as the truth value of b
D Same as the truth value of d

Que. 3 Consider the following relations:
R1 (a, b) if f(a + b) is even over the set of integers
R2 (a, b) if f(a + b) is odd over the set of integers
R3 (a, b) if f a.b > 0 over the set of non-zero rational numbers
R4 (a, b) iff |a - b | Which of the following statements is correct?
A R1 and R2 are equivalence relations, R3 and R4 are not
B R1 and R3 are equivalence relations, R2 and R4 are not
C R1 and R4 are equivalence relations, R2 and R3 are not
D R1, R2, R3 and R4 are all equivalence relations

Que. 4 Seven (distinct) car accidents occurred in a week. What is the probability
that they all occurred on the same day?
A (1/7)^7
B (1/7)^6
C (1/2)^7
D (7/2)^7

Que. 5 In the interval {0, (pi)} the equation x=cosx has
A no solution
B exactly one solution
C exactly two solution
D an infinite number of solution

Que. 6 In a room containing 28 people,there are 18 peoples who speaks english,15
people who speak hindi and 22 people who speak kannada.9 persons speak
both english and hindi,11 persons speak both hindi and kannada.Where as
13 persons speak both english and kannada.how many people speak all the
three languages?
A 9
B 8
C 7
D 6

Que. 7 Given the following relation instance X Y Z 1 4 2
1 5 3 1 6 3 3 2 2 Which of the following
functional dependencies are satisfied by the instance?
A XY->Z and Z ->Y
B YZ->X and Y->Z
C YZ->X and X->Z
D XZ->Y and Y->X

Que. 8 Let f(n) = (n^2)1 g n and g(n) = n (1 g n)^10 be two positive functions
of n. Which of the following statements is correct ?
A f(n) = O(g(n) and g(n)!= O(f(n))
B g(n) = O(f(n) and f(n) != O(g(n))
C f(n) != O(g(n)) and g(n) != O(f(n))
D f(n) = O(g(n)) and g(n) = O(f(n))

Que. 9 The proposition P^(~pvq) is
A A tautology
B logically equivalent to p^q
C logically equivalent to pvq
D A contradiction

Que. 10 Let A and B be real symmetric matrices of size n*n.Then which one of the
following is true?
A A(A^t)=1
B A=(A^-1)
C AB=BA
D (AB)^t=BA

Que. 11 The number of distinct simple graph with upto three nodes is
A 15
B 10
C 7
D 9

Que. 12 The Newton-Raphson method is used to find the root of the equation x^2-2=0.
if the iteration are started from -1,the iteration will
A converage to -1
B converage to [(sqrt)2]
C converage to -[(sqrt)2]
D not converage

Que. 13 What is the converse ofthe following assertion? I stay only
if you go
A I stay if you go
B if I stay then you go
C if you do not go then i donot stay
D if i do not stay then you go

Que. 14 In a room containing 28 people,there are 18 peoples who speak english,15
people who speak hindiand 22 people who speak kannada.9 persons speak
both english and hindi 11 persons speak both hindi and kannads whereas
13 persons speak both kannada and english.how many people speak all therr
languages?
A 9
B 8
C 7
D 6

Que. 15 Let L be the set of all binary strings whoes last two symbols are same.the
number of states in the minimum state determinimstc finite 0 state automaton
accepting L is
A 2
B 5
C 8
D 3

Que. 16 Which oneof the following operations is commutative but not associative?
A AND
B OR
C NAND
D EXOR

Que. 17 What is the maximum value of the function f(x)=2(x^2) -2x +6 in the interval
[0,2]?
A 6
B 10
C 12
D 5.5

Que. 18 The function
f(x,y)=(x^2)y-3xy+2y+x has
A no local extremun
B one local minimum but no local maximum
C one local maximum but no local minimum
D one local minimum and one local maximum

Que. 19 Let L be a set with a relation R which istransitive,anti
symmetric and reflexive and for any two elements a, b Î L let the
least upper bound lub (a, b) and the greatest lower bound glb
(a, b) exist. Which of the following is/are true?
A L is a poset
B L is a boolean algebra
C L is a lattice
D None of the above

Que. 20 The number of binary strings of n zeros and k ones that no two
ones are adjacent is
A n-1 C k
B n C k
C n C k+l
D None of the above


Que. 21 A polynomial p(x) satisfies the following: p (1) = p(3) = p(5) = 1
p(2) = p(4) = -1 The minimum degree of such a polynomial is
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4

Que. 22 Suppose the adjacency relation of vertices in a graph is represented
in a table Adj(X, Y). Which of the following queries cannot be expressed
by a relational algebra expression of constant length?
A List all vertices adjacent to a given vertex
B List all vertices which have self loops
C List all vertices which belong to cycles of less than three vertices
D List all vertices reachable from a given vertex

Que. 23 Let r and s be two relations over the relation schemes R and S respectively, and let A be an attribute in R. Then the relational algebra expression s A=a (r |X| s) is always equal to
A s A=a (r)
B r
C s A=a (r) |X| s
D none of the above

Que. 24 Let f : A->B be a function, and let E and F be subsets of A. Consider
the following statements about images. S1 :f (E(union)F)=f (E)(union)
f (F) S2 :f (E (intersection) F)=f(E)(intersection)f (F) Which of the
following is true about S1 and S2 ?
A Only S1 is correct
B Only S2 is correct
C Both S1 and S2 are correct
D None of S1 and S2 is correct

Que. 25 The proposition p <-> q means
A p if and only if q
B which is true if both p and q are true
C it is false when p is true and q is false
D all of the above

Que. 26 If A={a,b} then A+ is
A {a,b} (union) {{a,b}}
B {{a,b} (union) {a,b}}
C {a,b} (union) {a,b}}
D none of these

Que. 27 What is the number of ways to point 12 offices so that 3 of them will
be green,2 of them pink,2 of them yellow and the remaining onces white
A 166324
B 166328
C 166320
D 166322

Que. 28 The number of binary relations on a set with n elements is
A n^2
B 2^n
C 2^(n^2)
D none of these

Que. 29 Let A,B,C,D be n*n matrices,each with non-zero determinant.If ABCD=1 then
B^(-1) is
A D(-1)C(-1)A(-1)
B CDA
C ADC
D Does not necessarily exist

Que. 30 Given the following input (4322,1334,1471,1989,6171,6173,4199) ans the
following hash function x mod 10,which of the following statments are
true? (i) 9679,1989,4199 hash to the same value
(ii) 1471,6171 hash to the same value (iii)all elements
hash to the same value (iv)Each element hashes to a different
value
A (i) only
B (ii) only
C (i) and (ii) only
D (iii) or (iv)

Que. 31 In a group of 30 persons,a total of 16 take tea while 9 take tea but not
coffee. how many persons in this group take coffee but not tea?
A 27
B 20
C 25
D 11

Que. 32 The less than relation,<,on reals is
A A partical ordering since it is asymmetric and reflexive
B A partical ordering since it is antiymmetric and reflexive
C not a partical ordering it is not asymmetric and not reflexive
D not a partical ordering it is not asymmetric and reflexive
(E)none of these

Que. 33 The number of element in the power set P(S) of the set
S={(fi),1,(2,3)} is
A 2
B 4
C 8
D none of the above

Que. 34 The rank of the following (n+1)*(n+1) natrix,where a is a real number is
|1 a a^2... a^n|
|1 a a^2... a^n|
|. . . . |
|. . . . |
|. . . . |
|1 a a^2... a^n|
A 1
B 2
C n
D depend on the value of a

Que. 35 The determinant of the matrix
|6 -8 1 1|
|0 2 4 6|
|0 0 4 8|
|0 0 0 -1|
is
A 11
B -48
C 0
D -24

Que. 36 What is the maximum value of the function f(x)=2(x^2)-2x+6 in the interval
[0,2]?
A 6
B 10
C 12
D 5.5

Que. 37 The solution to the recurrence equation T(2^k)=3T[2^(k-1)]+1, T(1)=1,
is
A 2^k
B [3^(k+1)-1]/2
C [3^(log2 k)]
D [2^(log2 k)]

Que. 38 For X=4.0 the value of I in the FORTRAN 77 statment I=-2**2+5.0*X/X*3+3/4
is
A 11
B -11
C 22
D -22

Que. 39 A polynomial p(x) is such that p(0)=5, p(1)=4,P(2)=9 and p(3)=20.The minimum
degree it can have is
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4

Que. 40 Let f(x,y,z)=x'+y'x+xz be a switching function.Which one of the following
is valid
A y'x is a prime implicant of f
B xz is a minterm of f
C xz is an implicant of f
D y is a prime implicant of f

GATE Exam Papers - (Computer Science) - Part 7

Que. 1 Comparing the time T1 taken for a single instruction on a pipelined CPU
with time T2 taken on a non pipelined but identical CPU, we can say that
A T1
B T1>=T2
C T1<>
D T1 is T2 plus the time taken for one instruction fetch cycle

Que. 2 Consider the values A = Ques0 x 10 30, B =-Ques0 x 10 30 , C= 1.0, and
the sequence X: =A+B Y: =A+C X: = X + C Y: =Y+B executed on a computer
where floating-point numbers are represented with 32 bits. The values
for X and Y will be
A X = 1.0, Y =1.0
B X = 1.0, Y = 0.0
C X = 0.0, Y = 1.0
D X = 0.0, Y = 0.0

Que. 3 What is the scope of m declared in the main program?
A PARAM,P,Q
B PARAM,P
C PARAM,Q
D P,Q
(E)none of htese

Que. 4 Where does the swap space reside ?
A RAM
B Disk
C ROM
D On-chip cache

Que. 5 Trap is which type of interrupt
A synchronous
B Asynchronous
C Hardware
D software

Que. 6 Assume that each charecter code consist of 8-bits.The number of charecters
that can be transmitted per sec. through an asynchronous serial line
at 2400 band rate,and with two stop bits,is
A 109
B 216
C 218
D 219
(E)240

Que. 7 The value of n,output by the program PARAM is:
A 0,because n is a actual perameter that corresponds to x in procedure
Q.
B 0,because n is a actual perameter to y in procedure Q.
C 1,because n is a actual perameter corresponding to x in procedure Q.
D 1,because n is a actual perameter corresponding to y in procedure
Q. (E)none of these

Que. 8 A CPU has two modes - privileged and non-privileged. In order to change
the mode from privileged to non-privileged
A a hardware interrupt is needed
B a software interrupt is needed
C a privileged instruction (which does not generate an interrupt) is needed
D a non-privileged instruction (which does not generate an interrupt) is
needed

Que. 9 The main advantage of interrupt concept is elimination of
A spooling
B pooling
C job scheduling
D blocking the currently running process

Que. 10 Which is non vector interrupt?
A INTR
B TRAP
C RST 6.5
D RST 7.5

Que. 11 Which is the most appropriate match for the items in the first column
with the items in the second column ? X Indirect Addressing I. Array
implementation Y Indexed Addressing II. Writing relocatable code Z.
Base Register Addressing III. Passing array as parameter
A (X. III), (Y, I), (Z, II)
B (X, II), (Y, III), (Z, I)
C (X, III), (Y, II), (Z, I)
D (x, I), (Y, III), (Z, II)

Que. 12 The performance of a pipelined processor suffers if
A the pipeline stages have different delays
B consecutive instructions are dependent on each other
C the pipeline stages share hardware resources
D all of the above

Que. 13 The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running
process in a virtual memory environment is determined by
A the instruction set architecture
B page size
C physical memory size
D number of processes in memory

Que. 14 A certain processor supports only the immediate and the direct addressing
mods.Which of the following programming language features cannot be implemented
on this processor?
A pointers
B array
C records
D all of these

Que. 15 Ques Let m [0]….m [4] be mutexes (binary semaphores) and P [0] ... P [4]
be processes. Suppose each process P[i] executes the following : wait
(m [i]); wait (m [(i + 1) mode 4]); …….. release (m [i]) ; release (m[(i
+ 1) mod 4 ] ); This could cause
A Thrashing
B Deadlock
C Starvation, but not deadlock
D None of the above

Que. 16 A single instruction of a clear the lower four bits of the accumulator
in 8085 assembly language is?
A XIR OFH
B ANI FOH
C XIR FOH
D ANI OFH

Que. 17 Which of the following statment is true?
A ROM is read/write memory.
B PC points to the last instruction that was executed.
C stack works on the principle of LIFO
D All instructions affect the flags

Que. 18 In a page segemented scheme of memory management,the segment table
itself must have a page table because
A the segment table is often too large to fit in one page
B Each segment table is spread over a number of pages
C segment table points to page table and not to the physical
location of the segment
D none of these

Que. 19 I/O redirection
A implies changing the name of a file
B can be employed to use an existing file as input file for a program
C implies connection 2 programs through a pipe
D noneof the above

Que. 20 The sequence of two instructions that multiply the contents of the DE
resister pair by 2 and store the result in HL resister pair(in 8085 assembly
language) is
A XCHG and DAD B
B XTHL and DAD H
C PCHL and DAD D
D XCHG and DAD H


Que. 21 The address sequence generated by tracing a particular program executing
in a pure demand paging system with 100 records per page with 1 free
main memory fram is recorded as follows.What is the number of page
faults? 0100,0200,0430,0499,0510,0530,0560,0120,0220,0240,0260,0320,0370
A 13
B 7
C 8
D 10

Que. 22 A N-bit carry lookhaed adder,where N is a multiple of 4,employs IC's 74181
(4 bit ALU) and 74182(4 bit carry look ahead grnerator) the minimum
addition time using the best architecture for this adder is
A proportional to N
B proportional to log N
C constant
D none of the above

Que. 23 Dirty bit for a page in a page table
A helps avoid unnecessary writes on a paging device
B helps maintain LRU information
C allows only read on a page
D none of the above

Que. 24 Contents of A resister after the execution of the following 8085 microprocessor
program is MIV A,55H MIV C,25H ADDC DAA
A 7AH
B 80H
C 50H
D 22H

Que. 25 Each process Pi,i=1.......9 is coaded as follows
repeat
P(mutex)
{critical selection}
v(mutex)
forever
The code of P(10) is identical except that it uses v(mutex) in place of P(mutex).What is the largest
number of processes that can be inside the critical section at any moment
A 1
B 2
C 3
D none of the above

Que. 26 Let R = (a, b, c, d, e, f) be a relation scheme with the following dependencies c-->f, e-->a, ec-->d, a-->b. Which of the following is a key for R ?
A CD
B EC
C AE
D AC

Que. 27 A single instruction to clear the lower four bit of the accumulator in
8085 assembly language is
A XRI OF H
B A NI OH
C X RI FOH
D ANI OF H

Que. 28 Which of the following statment is true?
A ROM is read/write memory
B PC points to the last instruction that was executed
C Stack works on the principle of LIFO
D All instructions affect the flags.

Que. 29 Four 256*8 PROm chips are used to produce a total capacity of 1024*8 the
address bus lines are required are
A 4
B 8
C 10
D 16

Que. 30 Assume that each charecter code consist of8 bits.the number of characters
that can be transmitted per second thriugh an asynchronous serial line
at 2400 band rate and with two stop bit is
A 109
B 216
C 218
D 219

Que. 31 Virtual memory is
A simple to implement
B used on all majour commercial operating system
C useful when fast I/O devices are not available
D less efficient in utilization of memory

Que. 32 The primary quantity of a good working program in the earlier days of
software development in the 1950's and 1960's were
A maintainable
B Readable
C Fast
D On budget and within time

Que. 33 A multi-user, multi-processing operating system cannot be implemented
on hardware that does not support
A address translation
B DMA for the disk transfer
C At least two modes CPU execution
D all of these

Que. 34 Advantage of synchronous sequential circuits memory over asynchronous
once is
A faster operation
B ease to avoiding prblems due to hazards
C lower hardware requirment
D better noise immunity

Que. 35 The total size of address space in a virtual memory system is limited
by
A the length of MAR
B the available secindary storage
C the available main memory
D all of the above

Que. 36 A device employing INTR line for device interrupt puts the CALL instruction
on the data bus while
A INTA is active
B hold is active
C ready is active
D none of these

Que. 37 Which scheduling is not suffer to balady anomoly
A FCFC
B optimal page replacement
C LRU
D Round Robin

Que. 38 I/O vide rection
A implies changing the name of a file
B can be employed to use an existing files as input file for a program.
C implies connection 2 programs though a pipe.
D none of the above

Que. 39 Which of the following device should get higher priority in assigning
interrupts?
A hard disk
B printer
C keyboard
D floopy disk

Que. 40 The main difference between a CISC and RISC processor is/are that a RISC
prcessor typically
A has few ever instructions
B has fewever addressing modes
C has more registers
D all of these

GATE Exam Papers - (Computer Science) - Part 6

Que. 1 in serial communication employing 8 data bits,a parity bit and 2 stop
bits, the minimum band rate required to sustain a transfer rate of 300
charecters per secound is
A 2400 band
B 19200 band
C 3300 band
D 1200 band

Que. 2 the ASCII code is for inforation interchange by a binary code for
A numbers only
B alphabets only
C alpha numerics and other common
D none of these

Que. 3 Traffic light on road are example of
A close loop system
B open loop system
C both open loop and close loop
D open loop but can be made close loop

Que. 4 how many address lines are needed to address each memory location in a
2048*4 memory chip?
A 10
B 11
C 8
D 12

Que. 5 which code is used in Baudot system?
A five unit
B seven unit
C morse
D ASCII

Que. 6 the advantage of the self correcting code is
A it is a weighted code
B it has even parity
C it is easy to decode electronically
D all of these

Que. 7 The number -34 is represented in Excess-3 BCD code is
A 1,1001 1000
B 0,1001 1001
C 1,0110 0011
D 0,0110 0111

Que. 8 which of the following is not a charecteristic of rise processor design?
A one instruction per cycle
B registor to registor operations only
C simple address modes
D registor to memory operations only

Que. 9 The octal representation of an integer is (342)8 if this were to be treated
as an eight bit integer in an 8085 based computer its decimal equivalent is
A 226
B -98
C 76
D -30

Que. 10 A storage medium with cannot support both direct access and sequential
access application is
A magnetic drup
B hard disk
C magnetic tape
D floopy drive

Que. 11 The majour disadvantage of magnetic tapes is
A cost
B unreliability of stored data
C slow data recording
D data is to be accessed sequentially

Que. 12 In time division multiplexing
A time is doubled betwen bits and byte
B time slicing at CPU level takes place
C total time available in the channel is divided between several
users and each users is alloted a time slice
D none of these

Que. 13 The number of full and half-adders required to add 16-bit numbers
is
A 8 half-adders, 8 full-adders
B 1 half-adder, 15 full-adders
C 16 half-adders, 0 full-adders
D 4 half-adders, 12 full-adders

Que. 14 The simultaneous equations on the Boolean variables x, y, z and w, x+y+z=l
xy =0 xz+w = l x+[(complement)z w] =0 have the following solution
for x, y, z and w, respectively.
A 0 1 0 0
B 1 1 0 1
C 1 0 1 1
D 1 0 0 0

Que. 15 The 2's complement representation of (-539) 10 in hexadecimal is
A ABE
(BDBC
B wx'y'+xy+xz
C DE5
D 9E7

Que. 16 How many gates are needed for 3-bit up counter using standard binary and
using T flip-flop?Assume unlimited fan-in
A 4
B 3
C 2
D 1

Que. 17 A boolean function x'y'+xy+x'y is equivalent to
A x'+y'
B x+y
C x+y'
D x'+y

Que. 18 In an SR latch by crossing coupling two NAND gates if both S and R inputs
are set to 0 then it will result in
A Q=0, Q'=1
B Q=1, Q'=0
C Q=1, Q'=1
D indeterminate state

Que. 19 In 2's complement addition overflow
A is flagged whenever there is carry from sign bit addition
B cannot occur when positive values added to the negative value
C is flagged whenever there is carry from sign bit solution
D none of the above

Que. 20 the minimum number of NAND gates required to implement the boolean function
A+AB+ABC=
A 0
B 1
C 4
D 7


Que. 21 an R-S latch is a
A combinatorial ckt
B synchronous sequential ckt
C 1-bit memory arrangement
D one clock delay element

Que. 22 Ques 25. in an 8085 microprocessor system the RST instruction will cause
an interrupt
A only if an interrupt service routine is not being executed
B only if a bit in the intreeupt mask is made 0
C only if interrupts have been enabled by an EI INSTRUCTION
D NONE OF THE ABOVE

Que. 23 the minimum number of two input NAND gate required to iomplement the boolean
function _ Z=ABC,ASSUME that A,Band C are available is
A 2
B 3
C 5
D 6

Que. 24 The threshold level for logic 1 in the TTL family is
A only voltage above 2.5V
B any voltage between 0.8V and 5.0V
C any voltage below 5.0V
D any voltage below V(cc) but above 2.8V

Que. 25 the binary fraction 0.0111 in decimal form is equal to
A 0.4375
B 0.6225
C 0.8325
D 0.1105

Que. 26 in order to add 1111+1101, we required
A one FA,one HA
B three FA
C three FA,one HA
D none of these

Que. 27 A system has a word length of 4-bits.If in this system -ve numbers are
represented by their Two's compliment,then the range of numbers that can
be represented by the word length is
A -8 to +8
B -7 to +7
C -16 to +16
D none of these

Que. 28 The decimal value 0.25
A is equivalent to binary value 0.1
B is equivalent to the binary value 0.01
C is equivalent to the binary value 0.00111
D cannot be represented precisely in binary

Que. 29 How many boolean functions of 3 variables are there?
A 16
B 64
C 256
D 512

Que. 30 The number of 1s in the binary representation of (3*4096+15*256+5*16+3)
are
A 8
B 9
C 10
D 12

Que. 31 The threshold level for logic 1 in the TTL family is
A any voltage above 2.5v
B any voltage between 0.8v and 5.0v
C any voltage below 5.0v
D any voltage below V(cc) but above 2.8v

Que. 32 In order to add 1111+1101, we required
A one FA,one HA
B three FA
C three FA,one HA
D none of these

Que. 33 The number of different boolean function of 4 variables are
A 2^16
B 16^2
C 4^2
D 16^4

Que. 34 A carry look ahead adder is frequently used for addition because, it
A is faster
B more accurate
C used fewer gates
D costs less

Que. 35 The 2's complement representation of the decimal value 15 is
A 1111
B 11111
C 111111
D 10001

Que. 36 Sign extension is a step in
A Floating point multiplication
B Signed 16 bit integer addition
C Arithmetic left shift
D Converting a signed integer from one size to another.

Que. 37 Zero has two representation in
A sign magnitude
B 1's complement
C 2's complement
D none of the above

Que. 38 how many address lines are needed to address each memory location in a
2048*4 memory chip?
A 10
B 11
C 8
D 12

Que. 39 which code is used in Baudot system?
A five unit
B seven unit
C morse
D ASCII

Que. 40 If a counter having 10FFs is initally at 0,what count will if hold after
2060 pulses.
A 000 000 1100
B 000 001 1100
C 000 001 1000
D 000 000 1110

GATE Exam Papers - (Computer Science) - Part 5

Que. 1 Determinimg all possible decompositions of sequential machines requires...............
time in N,where N is the number of states.
A logarithmic
B linear
C N log(N)
D exponential

Que. 2 The following sequence of operations is performed on a stack
PUSH(10),PUSH(20),POP,PUSH(10)PUSH(20),POP,POP,POP,PUSH(20),POP
the sequence of values popped out is
A 20,10,20,10,20
B 20,20,10,10,20
C 10,20,20,10,20
D 20,20,10,20,10

Que. 3 A sorting technique is called stable if
A it takes 0 (n log n) time
B it maintains the relative order of occurrence of non-distinct
elements
C it uses divide and conquer paradigm
D it takes 0 (n) space.

Que. 4 Which of the following is correct?
A B-trees are for storing data on disk and B* trees are for
main memory.
B Range queries are faster on B* trees.
C B-trees are for primary indexes and B* trees are for secondary
indexes.
D The height of a B* tree is independent of the number of
records.

Que. 5 A certain processor supports only the immediate and the direct
addressing modes. Which of the following programming language features
cannot be implemented on this processor?
A Pointers
B Arrays
C Records
D Recursive procedures with local variable

Que. 6 The problems 3-SAT and 2-SAT are
A both P
B both NP
C NP complete and in P respectively
D undecidable and NP complete respectively

Que. 7 In SQL, relations can contain null values, and comparisons with null
values are treated as unknown. Suppose all comparisons with a null value
are treated as false. Which of the following pairs is not equivalent?
A x = 5 not (not (x = 5 ) )
B x= 5 x> 4 and x <>
C x (not equal) 5 not (x = 5)
D None of the above

Que. 8 consider the following C function:
int f(int n)
{
static int i=1;
if(n>=50) return n;
n=n+1;
i++;
return f(n);
}
The value returned by f(1) is
A 5
B 6
C 7
D 8

Que. 9 The time complexity of the following C function is
int recursive(int n) {
if(n==1)
return(1);
else
return(recursive (n-1)+recursive(n-1));
}
A O(n)
B O(n log n)
C O(n^2)
D O(2^n)

Que. 10 What does the following code do? var a,b:integer;
begin a:=a+b; b:=a-b; a:=a-b; end;
A exchangs a and b
B doubles a and stores in b
C doubles b and stores in a
D leaves a and b unchanged

Que. 11 In the index allocation scheme of block to file,the maximum possible size
ofthe file depends on
A the size ofthe blocks,and the size of the address of the blocks.
B the number of blocks used for the index, and the size of the block.
C the size of the blocks,the number of blocks used for the index,and
the size ofthe address ofthe blocks.
D none of these

Que. 12 indicate which ofthe following statments are true The number of rooted
binary trees with n nodes is,
A equal to number of ways of multiplying (n+1) matrices
B equal to number of ways of arrenging n out of 2n distinct elements
C equal to 1/(n+1)=(2n/2)
D equal to n!

Que. 13 What does the following code do? var a,b:integer begin a:=a+b;
b:=a-b; a:=a-b; end;
A exchanges a and b
B doubles a and store in b
C doubles b and store in a
D leaves a and b unchanged
(E)none of these

Que. 14 A part of the system software,which under all circumstances must reside
in the main memory,is
A text editor
B assembler
C linker
D loader
(E)none of these

Que. 15 Listed below are some operating system abstractions (in the left
column) and the hardware components (in the right column)?
A (d) -4, (B)-1, (C)-2, (D)-3
B (d) (A)-4, -1, (C)-2, (D)-3
C (d) (A)-4, (B)-1, -2, (D)-3
D (A)-4, (B)-1, (C)-2, -3

Que. 16 Which of the following disk scheduling strategies is likely to
give the best through put?
A Farthest cylinder next
B Nearest cylinder next
C First come first served
D Elevator algorithm

Que. 17 Let s be a sorted array of n integers. Let t (n) denote the time taken
for the most efficient algorithm to determine if there are two elements
with sum less than 1000 in s. Which of the following statements is true?
A t (n) is 0 (1)
B n
C n log 2 n
D t (n) = (n/2)

Que. 18 A top down parser generates
A right most derivation
B left most derivation
C right most derivation in reverse
D left most derivation in reverse

Que. 19 The root directory if a disk should be placed
A At a fixed address in the main memory
B At a fixed location on the disk
C anywhere on the disk
D At a fixed location on the system disk (E)anywhere on
the system disk

Que. 20 conisder a system having m resources of the same type.These resources
are shared by 3 processes A,B and C,which have peak demands of 3,4
and 6 respectively.For what value of m deadlock will not occure?
A 7
B 10
C 13
D 15


Que. 21 A linker is given object modules for a set of programs that wer compiled
separately.What information need not be included in an object module?
A Object code
B Relocation bits
C Names and locations of all external symbols defined in the
object module
D Absolute address of internal symbols

Que. 22 A binary tree T has a leaf nodes.The number of nodes of degree 2 in
T is
A log2 n
B n-1
C n
D 2^n

Que. 23 What is the value of A,B,C and D satisfy the following simultaneous
boolean equation A'+AB=0,AB=AC,AB+AC'+CD=C'D'
A A=1,B=0,C=0,D=1
B A=1,B=1,C=0,D=0
C A=1,B=0,C=1,D=1
D A=1,B=0,C=0,D=0

Que. 24 A binary search tree contains the value 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8.The tree is traversed
in pre-order and the value are printed out.Which of the following
sequence is a valid output?
A 5 3 1 2 4 7 8 6
B 5 3 1 2 6 4 8 7
C 5 3 2 4 1 6 7 8
D 5 3 1 2 4 7 8 6

Que. 25 A computer has 6 Tape drivers,with n processes competing for them.Each
process may need two drivers.What is the maximum value of n for the system
to be deadlock free?
A 6
B 5
C 4
D 3

Que. 26 Banker's algorithm for resource allocation deals with
A deadlock preventation
B deadlock avoidance
C deadlock recvery
D mutual exclusion

Que. 27 Suppose the domain set of an attribute consists of signed four digit numbers.What
is the % of reduction in storage space of this attribute if it is stored
as an integer rather than in character form?
A 80%
B 20%
C 60%
D 40%

Que. 28 The function of the syntax phase is
A to recognize the major constructs of the language and to call the
appropriate action routine
B to build a literal table
C to build a uniform symbol table
D to parse the source program into the basic elements or tokens of the
language

Que. 29 Abstruct class used in
A Virtual function
B pure virtual function
C member function
D none of these

Que. 30 QUEL is the query language in the system
A ingers. QUEL based on the relation calculus
B Codsyl.QUEL
C SQL.QUEL
D none of the above

Que. 31 What is the name of O.S. system for the laptop computer called Maclite?
A Windows
B DOS
C MS-DOS
D OZ

Que. 32 Queues serve a major role in
A simulation of recursion
B simulation of motion of subatomic particle
C simulation of arbitary linked list
D simulation of limited resources allocation

Que. 33 The results returned by functions under value result and referance parameter
passing conventions
A Donor differ
B differ in presence of loops
C differ in all cases
D may differ in the presence of exceptions

Que. 34 Storage mapping is done by
A loader
B linker
C editor
D compiler

Que. 35 If n is a power of 2, then the minimum number of multiplications needed
to computer a^n is
A log2 n
B [(sqrt)n]
C n-1
D n

Que. 36 Which of the following is most powerful parsing method?
A LL(1)
B Canonical LR
C SLR
D LALR

Que. 37 How many comparisons are required to sort an array of length 5 if a straight
selection sort is used and the array is already sorted in the opposite order?
A 0
B 1
C 10
D 20

Que. 38 For marging two sorted lists of sizes m and n into a sorted list of size
m+n we require comparisons of
A O(m)
B O(n)
C O(m+n)
D O(log m + log n)

Que. 39 The parsing technique that avoides back traacking is
A top down parsing
B recursive descent parsing
C predictive parsing
D both b and c above

Que. 40 Let L be the set of binary strings whose last two symbols are same.The
number ofstates in the minimum state deterministic finite state automation
accepting L is
A 2
B 5
C 8
D 3

GATE Exam Papers - (Computer Science) - Part 4

1 What does the following algorithm approximate? (Assume m > 1, Î > 0).
x = m;
y-i;
while (x - y > Î)
{ x = (x + y) / 2 ;
y = m/x ;
}
print (x) ;
Options A) log m B)
m2



C) m1/2 D) m1/3

Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer C

2 The problems 3-SAT and 2-SAT are
Options A) both in P
B) both NP-complete

C) NP-complete and in P respectively D) undecidable and NP-complete respectively

Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer C

3 Consider a relation scheme R = (A, B, C, D, E, H) on which the following functional dependencies hold : (A ® B, BC ® D, E ® C, D ® A). What are the candidate keys of R?
Options A) AE, BE B) AE, BE, DE
C) AEH, BEH, BCH D) AEH, BEH, DEH

Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer D

4 A circuit outputs a digit in the form of 4 bits. 0 is represented by 0000,1 by 0001,..., 9 by 1001. A combinational circuit is to be designed which takes these 4 bits as input and outputs 1 if the digit ³ 5, and 0 otherwise. If only AND, OR and NOT gates may be used, what is the minimum number of gates required?
Options A) 2 B) 3
C) 4 D) 5

Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer C

5 If 73x (in base-x number system) is equal to 54y (in base-y number system), the possible values of x and y are
Options A) 8, 16 B) 10, 12

C) 9, 13 D) 8, 11

Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer D

6 In a packet switching network, packets are routed from source to destination along a single path having two intermediate nodes. If the message size is 24 bytes and each packet contains a header of 3 bytes, then the optimum packet size is
Options A) 4 B) 6
C) 7 D) 9

Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer D

7 Consider the following program fragment for reversing the digits in a given integer to obtain a new integer. Let n = d1d2... dm.
int n, rev;
rev = 0;
while (n > 0) {
rev = rev * 10 + n % 10 ;
n = n/10;
}
The loop invariant condition at the end of the ith iteration is:
Options A) n = d1d2... dm-i and rev = dmdm-1….dm-i+1 B) n = dm-i+1...dm-1dm (or) rev = dm-i...d2d1
C) n ¹ rev D) n = d1d2...dm (or) rev = dm...d2d1


Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer A

8 Consider the following program segment for a hypothetical CPU having three user registers Rl, R2 and R3.

Instruction Operation Instruction Size (in words)
MOV Rl,5000 ; Rl ¬ Memory[5000] 2
MOV R2,(R1) ; R2 ¬ Memory[(Rl)] 1
ADD R2,R3 ; R2 ¬ R2 + R3 1
MOV 6000, R2 ; Memory[6000] ¬ R2 2
HALT ; Machine halts 1


Let the clock cycles required for various operations be as follows:
Register to/from memory transfer : 3 clock cycles
ADD with both operands in register : 1 clock cycle
Instruction fetch and decode : 2 clock cycles per word
The total number of clock cycles required to execute the program is


Options A) 29 B) 24
C) 23 D) 20

Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer B

9 Consider an operating system capable of loading and executing a single
sequential user process at a time. The disk head scheduling algorithm used is First Come First Served (FCFS). If FCFS is replaced by Shortest Seek Time First (SSTF), claimed by the vendor to give 50% better benchmark results, what is the expected improvement in the I/O performance of user programs ?
Options A) 50% B) 40%

C) 25% D) 0%


Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer D

10 Consider the following statements with respect to user-level threads and
kernel-supported threads
(i) Context switch is faster with kernel-supported threads
(ii) For user-level threads, a system call can block the entire process
(iii) Kernel-supported threads can be scheduled independently
(iv) User-level threads are transparent to the kernel
Which of the above statements are true?
Options A) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only B) (ii) and (iii) only

C) (i), and (iii) only D) (i) and (ii) only


Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer A

11 Consider three decision problems P1, P2 and P3. It is known that P1 is decidable and P2 is undecidable. Which one of the following is TRUE?
Options A) P3 is decidable if P1 is reducible to P3 B) P3 is undecidable if P3 is reducible to P2

C) P3 is undecidable if P2 is reducible to P3
D) P3 is decidable if P3 is reducible to P2s complement

Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer A

12 Which one of the following are essential features of an object-oriented
programming language?

(i) Abstraction and encapsulation
(ii) Strictly-typedness
(iii) Type-safe property coupled with sub-type rule
(iv) Polymorphism in the presence of inheritance


Options A) (i) and (ii) only B) (i) and (iv) only
C) (i), (ii) and (iv) only D) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer B

13 Consider the following relation schema pertaining to a students database:
Student (rollno, name, address)
Enroll (rollno, courseno, coursename)
where the primary keys are shown underlined. The number of tuples in the Student and Enroll tables are 120 and 8 respectively. What are the maximum and minimum number of tuples that can be present in (Student * Enroll), where ‘*’denotes natural join?
Options A) 8, 8 B) 120, 8

C) 960, 8 D) 960, 120


Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer C

14 Assume the following C variable declaration

int *A [10], B [10][10];

Of the following expressions

I A[2] II A [2] [3]

III B[l] IV B[2][3]

which will not give compile-time errors if used as left hand sides of assignment statements in a C program ?

Options A) I, II, and IV only B) II, III, and IV only
C) II and IV only D) IV only



Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer D

15 How many distinct binary search trees can be created out of 4 distinct keys?
Options A) 5 B) 14
C) 24 D) 42

Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer B

16 Given the following input (4322, 1334, 1471, 9679, 1989, 6171, 6173, 4199) and the hash function x mod 10, which of the following statements are true ?
(i) 9679, 1989, 4199 hash to the same value
(ii) 1471, 6171 hash to the same value
(iii) All elements hash to the same value
(iv) Each element hashes to a different value
Options A) (i) only B) (ii) only

C) (i) and (ii) only D) (iii) or (iv)

Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer C

17 Packets of the same session may be routed through different paths in
Options A) TCP, but not UDP B) TCP and UDP

C) UDP, but not TCP D) Neither TCP, nor UDP


Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer B

18 The following numbers are inserted into an empty binary search tree in the given order: 10, 1, 3, 5, 15, 12, 16. What is the height of the binary search tree (the height is the maximum distance of a leaf node from the root)?
Options A) 2 B) 3
C) 4 D) 6

Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer B

19 Postorder traversal of a given binary search tree, T produces the following sequence of keys
10, 9, 23, 22, 27, 25, 15, 50, 95, 60, 40, 29
Which one of the following sequences of keys can be the result of an inorder traversal of the tree T?
Options A) 9, 10, 15, 22, 23, 25, 27, 29, 40, 50, 60, 95 B) 9, 10, 15, 22, 40, 50, 60, 95, 23, 25, 27, 29
C) 29, 15, 9, 10, 25, 22, 23, 27, 40, 60, 50, 95
D) 95, 50, 60, 40, 27, 23, 22, 25, 10, 9, 15, 29

Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer A

20 Let f: B ® C and g: A ® B be two functions and let h = f o g. Given that h is an onto function. Which one of the following is TRUE?
Options A) f and g should both be onto functions. B) f should be onto but g need not be onto
C) g should be onto but f need not be onto D) both f and g need not be onto

Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer B

GATE Exam Papers - (Computer Science) - Part 3

1 Consider the following C function
void swap (int a, int b)
{ int temp ;
temp = a ;
a = b ;
b = temp ;
}
In order to exchange the values of two variables x and y.
Options A) call swap (x, y)
B) call swap (&x, &y)

C) swap (x, y) cannot be used as it does not return any value D) swap (x, y) cannot be used as the parameters are passed by value


Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer B

2 A 5 stage pipelined CPU has the following sequence of stages:
IF - Instruction fetch from instruction memory,
RD - Instruction decode and register read,
EX - Execute: ALU operation for data and address computation,
MA - Data memory access - for write access, the register read at RD stage is used,
WB - Register write back.
Consider the following sequence of instructions:
I1 : L R0, 1oc1; R0 <= M[1oc1]
I2 : A R0, R0; R0 <= R0 + R0
I3: A R2, R0; R2 <= R2 - R0
Let each stage take one clock cycle.
What is the number of clock cycles taken to complete the above sequence of instructions starting from the fetch of I1?
Options A) 8 B) 10
C) 12 D) 15

Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer A

3 The address resolution protocol (ARP) is used for
Options A) Finding the IP address from the DNS B) Finding the IP address of the default gateway
C) Finding the IP address that corresponds to a MAC address D) Finding the MAC address that corresponds to an IP address

Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer D

4 Consider the following relation schema pertaining to a students database:
Student (rollno, name, address)
Enroll (rollno, courseno, coursename)
where the primary keys are shown underlined. The number of tuples in the Student and Enroll tables are 120 and 8 respectively. What are the maximum and minimum number of tuples that can be present in (Student * Enroll), where ‘*’denotes natural join?
Options A) 8, 8 B) 120, 8

C) 960, 8 D) 960, 120


Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer C

5 Consider a direct mapped cache of size 32 KB with block size 32 bytes. The CPU generates 32 bit addresses. The number of bits needed for cache indexing and the number of tag bits are respectively
Options A) 10, 17 B) 10, 22
C) 15, 17 D) 5, 17

Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer A

6 Which one of the following is a key factor for preferring B+ -trees to binary search trees for indexing database relations?
Options A) Database relations have a large number of records B) Database relations are sorted on the primary key
C) B+ -trees require less memory than binary search trees D) Data transfer from disks is in blocks

Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer D

7 The goal of structured programming is to
Options A) have well indented programs B) be able to infer the flow of control from the compiled code
C) be able to infer the flow of control from the program text D) avoid the use of GOTO statements

Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer C

8 The tightest lower bound on the number of comparisons, in the worst ease, for comparison-based sorting is of the order of
Options A) n B) n2
C) n log n D) n log2 n

Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer B

9 Consider the following two problems on undirected graphs
a: Given G(V, E), does G have an independent set of size |V| -4?
b: Given G(V, E), does G have an independent set of size 5?
Which one of the following is TRUE?
Options A) a is in P and b is NP-complete B) a is NP-complete and b is in P
C) Both a and b are NP-complete D) Both a and b are in P

Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer C

10 Consider the languages
L1 = {wwR | w Î{0, 1}*}
L2 = {w# wR | w Î{0, 1}*}, where # is a special symbol
L3 = {ww | w Î{0, 1}*}
Which one of the following is TRUE?
Options A) L1 is a deterministic CFL B) L2 is a deterministic CFL
C) L3 is a CFL, but not a deterministic CFL D) L3 is a deterministic CFL

Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer B

11 Let G be a simple graph with 20 vertices and 100 edges. The size of the minimum vertex cover of G is 8. Then, the size of the maximum independent set of G is
Options A) 12 B) 8
C) Less than 8 D) More than 12

Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer A

12 A and B are the only two stations on an Ethernet. Each has a steady queue of frames to send. Both A and B attempt to transmit a frame, collide, and A wins the first backoff race. At the end of this successful transmission by A, both A and B attempt to transmit and collide. The probability that A wins the second backoff race is
Options A) 0.5 B) 0.625

C) 0.75 D) 1.0


Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer A

13 Consider the grammar
E ® E + n | E x n | n
For a sentence n + n x n, the handles in the right-sentential form of the reduction are
Options A) n, E + n and E + n x n B) n, E + n and E + E x n
C) n, n + n and n + n x n D) n, E + n and E x n

Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer D

14 Consider the grammar with the following translation rules and E as the start symbol.
E ® E1 # T {E.value = E1.value * T.value }
| T {E.value = T.value }
T ® T1 & F { T.value = T1.value + F.value }
| F {T.value = F.value}
F ® num {F.value = num.value }
Compute E. value for the root of the parse tree for the expression: 2 # 3 & 5 # 6 & 4.
Options A) 200 B) 180
C) 160 D) 40

Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer C

15 Let A be a sequence of 8 distinct integers sorted in ascending order. How many distinct pairs of sequences, B and C are there such that (i) each is sorted in ascending order, (ii) B has 5 and C has 3 elements, and (iii) the result of merging B and C gives A?

Options A) 2 B) 30
C) 56 D) 256

Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer D

16 Which one of the following is true for a CPU having a single interrupt request line and a single interrrupt grant line?
Options A) Neither vectored interrupt nor multiple interrupting devices are possible. B) Vectored interrupts are not possible but multiple interrupting devices are possible.
C) Vectored interrupts and multiple interrupting devices are both possible. D) Vectored interrupt is possible but multiple interrupting devices are not possible.

Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer B

17 Consider a relation scheme R = (A, B, C, D, E, H) on which the following functional dependencies hold : (A ® B, BC ® D, E ® C, D ® A). What are the candidate keys of R?
Options A) AE, BE B) AE, BE, DE
C) AEH, BEH, BCH D) AEH, BEH, DEH

Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer D

18 In a network of LANs connected by bridges, packets are sent from one LAN to another through intermediate bridges. Since more than one path may exist between two LANs, packets may have to be routed through multiple bridges.

Why is the spanning tree algorithm used for bridge-routing?

Options A) For shortest path routing between LANs B) For avoiding loops in the routing paths
C) For fault tolerance D) For minimizing collisions

Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer B

19 Suppose T(n) = 2T (n/2) + n, T(0) = T(1) = 1
Which one of the following is FALSE?
Options A) T(n) = O(n2 ) B) T(n) = q (n log n)
C) T(n) = W (n2) D) T(n) = O(n log n)

Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer B

20 Consider the following C program segment
struct CellNode {
struct CellNode *leftChild ;
int element;
struct CellNode *rightChild ;
};
int DoSomething (struct CellNode *ptr)
{
int value = 0 ; if (ptr ! = NULL)
{ if (ptr->leftChild ! = NULL)
value = 1 + DoSomething (ptr - > leftChild) ;
if (ptr - > rightChild ! = NULL)
value = max (value, 1 + DoSomething (ptr - > rightChild)) ;
}
return (value);
}

The value returned by the function DoSomething when a pointer to the root of a
non-empty tree is passed as argument is

Options A) The number of leaf nodes in the tree
B) The number of nodes in the tree
C) The number of internal nodes in the tree D) The height of the tree


Your Answer (Not Answered)
Correct Answer D

GATE Exam Papers - (Computer Science) - Part 2

1 Consider the following program segment for a hypothetical CPU having three user registers Rl, R2 and R3.

Instruction Operation Instruction Size (in words)
MOV Rl,5000 ; Rl ¬ Memory[5000] 2
MOV R2,(R1) ; R2 ¬ Memory[(Rl)] 1
ADD R2,R3 ; R2 ¬ R2 + R3 1
MOV 6000, R2 ; Memory[6000] ¬ R2 2
HALT ; Machine halts 1


Let the clock cycles required for various operations be as follows:
Register to/from memory transfer : 3 clock cycles
ADD with both operands in register : 1 clock cycle
Instruction fetch and decode : 2 clock cycles per word
The total number of clock cycles required to execute the program is


Options A) 29 B) 24 C) 23 D) 20

Correct Answer B

2 The order of an internal node in a B+ tree index is the maximum number of children it can have. Suppose that a child pointer takes 6 bytes, the search field value takes 14 bytes, and the block size is 512 bytes. What is the order of the internal node?
Options A) 24 B) 25 C) 26 D) 27

Correct Answer C

3 The Boolean function x, y, + xy + x, y

Options A) x, + y, B) x + y

C) x + y, D) x, + y

Correct Answer D

4 In an MxN matrix such that all non-zero entries are covered in a rows and b columns. Then the maximum number of non-zero entries, such that no two are on the same row or column, is

Options A) £ a + b B) £ max {a, b}

C) £ min {M-a, N-b} D) £ min {a, b}


Correct Answer A

5 The relation scheme Student Performance (name, courseNo, rollNo, grade) has the following functional dependencies:
name, courseNo ® grade
rollNo, courseNo ® grade
name ® rollNo
rollNo ® name
The highest normal form of this relation scheme is
Correct Answer A

6 The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by
Options A) the instruction set architecture B) page size

C) physical memory size D) number of processes in memory

Correct Answer D

7 Consider the following program segment for a hypothetical CPU having three user registers Rl, R2 and R3.

Instruction Operation Instruction Size (in words)
MOV Rl,5000 ; Rl ¬ Memory[5000] 2
MOV R2,(R1) ; R2 ¬ Memory[(Rl)] 1
ADD R2,R3 ; R2 ¬ R2 + R3 1
MOV 6000, R2 ; Memory[6000] ¬ R2 2
HALT ; Machine halts 1


Consider that the memory is byte addressable with size 32 bits, and the program has been loaded starting from memory location 1000 (decimal). If an interrupt occurs while the CPU has been halted after executing the HALT instruction, the return address (in decimal) saved in the stack will be


Options A) 1007 B) 1020

C) 1024 D) 1028


Correct Answer A

8 Let G be a simple graph with 20 vertices and 100 edges. The size of the minimum vertex cover of G is 8. Then, the size of the maximum independent set of G is
Options A) 12 B) 8
C) Less than 8 D) More than 12

Correct Answer A

9 What does the following algorithm approximate? (Assume m > 1, Î > 0).
x = m;
y-i;
while (x - y > Î)
{ x = (x + y) / 2 ;
y = m/x ;
}
print (x) ;
Options A) log m B)
m2



C) m1/2 D) m1/3

Correct Answer C

10 Consider the following C program
main ()
{ int x, y, m, n ;
scanf ("%d %d", &x, &y);
/ * Assume x > 0 and y > 0 * /
m = x; n = y ;
while ( m ! = n)
{ if (m > n)
m = m — n;
else
n = n - m ; }
printf("%d",n); }
The program computes
Options A) x + y, using repeated subtraction
B) x mod y using repeated subtraction
C) the greatest common divisor of x and y
D) the least common multiple of x and y

Correct Answer C

11 The best data structure to check whether an arithmetic expression has balanced parentheses is a
Options A) queue B) stack

C) tree D) list


Correct Answer B

12 A Priority-Queue is implemented as a Max-Heap. Initially, it has 5 elements. The level-order traversal of the heap is given below:
10, 8,5,3,2
Two new elements 1 and 7 are inserted in the heap in that order. The level-order traversal of the heap after the insertion of the elements is
Options A) 10,8,7,5,3,2,1 B) 10,8,7,2,3,1,5
C) 10,8,7,1,2,3,5 D) 10,8,7,3,2,1,5

Correct Answer D

13 Consider the following C program segment
struct CellNode {
struct CellNode *leftChild ;
int element;
struct CellNode *rightChild ;
};
int DoSomething (struct CellNode *ptr)
{
int value = 0 ; if (ptr ! = NULL)
{ if (ptr->leftChild ! = NULL)
value = 1 + DoSomething (ptr - > leftChild) ;
if (ptr - > rightChild ! = NULL)
value = max (value, 1 + DoSomething (ptr - > rightChild)) ;
}
return (value);
}

The value returned by the function DoSomething when a pointer to the root of a
non-empty tree is passed as argument is

Options A) The number of leaf nodes in the tree
B) The number of nodes in the tree
C) The number of internal nodes in the tree D) The height of the tree


Correct Answer D

14 An organization has a class B network and wishes to form subnets for 64 departments. The subnet mask would be
Options A) 255.255.0.0 B) 255.255.64.0

C) 255.255.128.0 D) 255.255.252.0

Correct Answer D

15 Suppose the round trip propagation delay for a 10 Mbps Ethernet having 48-bit jamming signal is 46.4 ms. The minimum frame size is:
Options A) 94 B) 416
C) 464 D) 512

Correct Answer C

16 Consider the following C program segment:

char p [ 20];

char * s = "string" ;

int length = strlen (s) ;

for (i = 0 ; i <>

p[ i ] = s [length - i] ;

print f ("%s", p) ;
The output of the program is

Correct Answer A

17 Consider the grammar
S ® (S) | a
Let the number of states in SLR(1), LR(1) and LALR(1) parsers for the grammar be n1, n2 and n3 respectively. The following relationship holds good
Options A) n1< n1=" n3">
C) n1= n2 = n3 D) n1 ³ n3 ³ n2

Correct Answer B

18 Consider the following C function:
int f (int n)
{ static int i = 1;
if (n >= 5) return n;
n = n + i;
i ++;
return f (n);
}
The value returned by f(1) is

Options A) 5 B) 6
C) 7 D) 8

Correct Answer C

19 Consider the following code fragment:
if (fork ( ) = = 0)
{a = a + 5; print f (“%d, %d / n”, a, and a); }
else {a - 5; print f (“ %d, %d / n”, a,& a); }
Let u, v be the values printed by the parent process, and x, y be the values printed by the child process. Which one of the following is TRUE?
Options A) u = x + 10 and v = y B) u = x + 10 and v ¹ y
C) u + 10 =x and v = y D) u + 10 = x and v ¹ y

Correct Answer B

20 The following numbers are inserted into an empty binary search tree in the given order: 10, 1, 3, 5, 15, 12, 16. What is the height of the binary search tree (the height is the maximum distance of a leaf node from the root)?
Options A) 2 B) 3
C) 4 D) 6

Correct Answer B

GATE Exam Papers - (Computer Science) - Part 1

More than one answer can be correct.

Que. 1 Context-free languages are closed under:
A Union , intersection
B Union , Kleene closure
C Intersection, complement
D Complement, Kleene Closure

Que. 2 Let L p be the set of all languages accepted by a PDA by final
state and L E the set of all languages accepted by empty stack.
Which of the following is true?
A L D = L E
B L D É L E
C L D = L E
D None of the above

Que. 3 A grammar that is both left and right recursive for anonterminal,
is
A Ambiguous
B Unambiguous
C Information is not sufficient to decide whether it is ambiguous or
(D)None of the above
D (C)Information is not sufficient to decide whether it is ambiguous or
None of the above

Que. 4 Let S and T be languages over S = {a, b} represented by the regular expressions (a + b *) * and (a + b) *, respectively. Which of the following is true?
A S Ì T
B T Ì S
C S = T
D S Ç T = f

Que. 5 Let L denotes the language generated by the grammar S->0S0/00.
Which of the following is true?
A L = 0 +
B L is regular but not 0 +
C L is context free but not regular
D L is not context free

Que. 6 Which of the following need not necessarily be saved on a context switch
between processes?
A General purpose registers
B Translation look aside buffer
C Program counter
D All of the above

Que. 7 Given an arbitrary non-deterministic finite automaton (NFA) with
N states, the maximum number of states in an equivalent minimized
DFA is at least
A N^2
B 2^N
C 2N
D N!

Que. 8 Which one of the following regular expression over {1,1} denotes the set of all strings not containing 100 as a substring?
A 0*(1+0)*
B 0*1010*
C 0*101
D 0*(10+1)*

Que. 9 Aliasing in the context of programming languages refers to
A multiple variables having the same memory location
B multiple variables having the same value
C multiple variables having the same identifier
D multiple uses of the same variable

Que. 10 Consider the following decision problems : (PI) Does a given finite
state machine accept a given string (P2) Does a given context free grammar
generate an infinite number of stings Which of the following statements
is true?
A Both (PI) and (P2) are decidable
B Neither (PI) nor (P2) are decidable
C Only (PI) is decidable
D Only (P2) is decidable

Que. 11 Given the following expression grammar:
E->E * F | F+E | F
F-> F-F | id
Which of the following is true?
A * has higher precedence than +
B - has higher precedence than *
C + and - have same precedence
D + has higher precedence than *

Que. 12 Consider the following two statements:
S1: {(O^2n) |n>/=1} is a regu1ar language
S2: {(O^m)(1^n)(O^m+n)|m>/=l and n>/=l} is a regu1ar language
Which of the following statements is correct?
A Only S1 is correct
B Only S2 is correct
C Both S1 and S2 are correct
D None of S1 andS2 is correct

Que. 13 Which of the following statements in true?
A If a language is context free it can always be accepted by a deterministic
push-down automaton
B The union of two context free languages is context free
C The intersection of two context free languages is context free
D The complement of a context free language is context free

Que. 14 Which of the following statements is false?
A An unambiguous grammar has same leftmost and rightmost derivation
B An LL(1) parser is a top-down parser
C LALR is more powerful than SLR
D An ambiguous grammar can never be LR(k) for any k

Que. 15 Consider the following languages:
L1={w w l w (belongs) to) {a,b}*}
L2={ww^R | w (belongs) {a, b}*, w R is the reverse of w}
L3 = { 0^2i | i is an integer}
L4 = {[(O)^i]^2| i is an integer}
Which of the languages are regular?
A Only L1 and L2
B Only L2, L3, and L4
C Only L3 and L4
D Only L3

Que. 16 Context free language are closed under
A union, intesection
B union,kleene closure
C intesection,complement
D complement,kleene closure

Que. 17 Context free languages are
A closed under union
B closed under complementation
C closed under intersection
D all of the above

Que. 18 Which one is equivalent (i) (00)*(e+0) (ii) (00)* (iii) 0* (iv)
0(00)*
A (i) and (ii)
B (ii) and (iii)
C (i) and (iii)
D (iii) and (iv)

Que. 19 Type O grammer is
A (C)both and (b) above
B (C)both (a) and above
C both (a) and (b) above
D none of these

Que. 20 Consider a DFA over S = {a, b} accepting all strings which have number of a's divisible by 6 and number of b's divisible by 8. What is the minimum number of states that the DFA will have?
A 8
B 14
C 15
D 48


Que. 21 The language L={(a^k)(b^k) | k>or= 1} is
A type 3 grammer
B type 2 grammer
C type 1 grammer
D type 0 grammer

Que. 22 Recursive languages are
A a proper superset of context free languages
B always recognizable by pushdown automata
C also called type zero lanugages
D all of these

Que. 23 A grammer that is both left and right recursive for a nopn-terminal is
A ambiguous
B unambiguous
C information is not sufficient to decide whether it is ambiguous or
unambiguous
D none of the above

Que. 24 For what values of n is 10*n*log2 (n) >2*(n^2)?
A only n>/= 32
B only 0
C only 20
D only n>/=0

Que. 25 Let * be defined as x*y = x' + y.Let z = x * y .Value of z*x is
A x' + y
B x
C 0
D 1

Que. 26 Which of the following regular expressions over {0,1} denotes the set of all strings not containing
100 as a substring
A 0*(1+0)*
B 0*1010*
C 0*1*01*
D 0*(10+1)*

Que. 27 Which of the following grammer rules violate the requirements of an operator
grammer? P,Q,R are nonterminals and r,s,t are terminals. (i)
P -> Q R (ii) P -> QsR (iii) P -> e (iv)P
->Qtpr
A (i) only
B (i) and (iii) only
C (ii) and (iii) only
D (iii) and (iv) only

Que. 28 indicate which ofthe following statments are true Recursive language
are
A A proper superset of context free languages
B always recognizable by pushdown automata
C recognizable by turing machine
D also called type-0 languages

Que. 29 Which of the following is not decidable?
A Given a Turing machine M,a string s and an integer k,M accepts s
within k steps
B Equivalence of two given Turing machines
C Language Accepted by a given finite state machine is not empty
D language generated by a context free grammer is not empty

Que. 30 Regarding the power of recognition of languages,Which of the following
statments is false?
A the non-deterministic finite-state automata are equivalent to deterministic
finite state automata.
B non-deterministic push down automata are equivalent to deterministic
push down automata.
C non-deterministic Turing machines are equivalent to deterministic
to push down automata.
D non-deterministic Turing machines are equivalent to deterministic
Turing machines

Que. 31 The string 1101 does not belong to the set represented by
A 110*(0+1)
B 1(0+1)*101
C (10)*(01)*(00+11)*
D (00+(11)*0)*

Que. 32 The following grammer S->bS S->b S->aA A->bA A->aB B->bB B->aS
B->a is
A type 3 grammer
B type 2 grammer
C type 1 grammer
D type 0 grammer

Que. 33 A language accepted by a pushdown Automaton in which the stack is limited
to 10 items is best described as
A Context free
B Regular
C Deterministic Context free
D Recursive

Que. 34 Aliasing in the context of programming languages refers to
A multiple variables having the same memory location
B multiple variables having the same value
C multiple variables having the same identifier
D multiple uses of the same variable

Que. 35 If L1 is context free language and L2 is aregular language which ofthe
followingi/are false
A L1-L2 is not context free
B L1 (intersection) L2 is context free
C ~L2 is context free
D ~L1 isregular

Que. 36 consider the following regular expression :
R=(ab|abb)*bbab
Which of the following strings is NOT in the set denoted by R?
A ababab
B abbbab
C abbabbbab
D ababbabbbab

Que. 37 The following grammar S->bS S->b S->aA A->bA is
A type-3 grammer
B type-2 grammer
C type-1 grammer
D type-0 grammer

Que. 38 The smallest finite aitomaton which accepts the language {x|length of x is divisible by 3} has
A 2 states
B 3 states
C 4 states
D 5 states

Que. 39 The following production A -> ab A -> aA aAb ->
aBCb is
A type-3 grammer
B type-2 grammer
C type-1 grammer
D type-0 grammer

Que. 40 Which of the following statment is false>
A every finite subset of an non-regular set is regular
B every subset of a regular set is regular
C every finite subset of an regular set is regular
D The intersection of two regular set is regular

SAP Basis

1. What is your current project going on?
A. Tell the present company what u r working. From how long r u working r
Remember the dates better write down separately where have u worked
2. What is your SAP experience.

3. What are your daily activities at your place?
A. We do monitoring for the servers like we go through t.codes
SM37 – Simple job selection, ST22 : ABAP dump analysis, SM21 – System Log
SM13 - we will check update status SM12 – Check any Obsolete lock entries
SP01 – Check any spool errors, Db02 – Check any critical table spaces
DB12 – We will check Database logs ST02 – check Tuning summary
ST04 – Check the performance of the Database

4. How do you rate yourself from 1-10?
A. 8 out of 10
5. Can u tell me about R/3 Architecture?
A.1 tier :- all processing tasks are performed on one server
2 tier :- Presentation layer carried on one part and Application and Databse Services are carried
one server
3 tier :- Separate servers are used for 3 tier like we can say using data from database server, several deifferent application servers can operate at the same time
what is u r system configuration?
A.OS – Windows NT-4.0 with Service pack 6a RAM – 2 GB , 1 GB – Network Interface Card
IE 5.0
what u r current patch level? And oracle version?
A Kernel 620 kernel patch number 1090 , Oracle version 8.1.5.0
what is meant by tablespace?
A. It is a container for database objects such as table and indexes.
what is meant by central instance?
A. It is an R/3 Instance which contains the message service and typically contains all r/3 services
what is meant by checkpoint?
Check point is an event during which all the modified datablock will written to the datafile by the database writer.
What is an extent :
Collection of oracle blocks
What is a segment
A. Collection of extents is a segment
how to create a data file?
A. Alter table table_name add datafile;

What is a Client?
A client is an independently accountable business unit.
Tell me the transaction code for creating an RFC
SM59

Local Cleint copy – SCCL Remote Client copy – scc9
how to analyze system logs and dumps? Through SM21 and ST22
Tell me the default users in sap
A. SAP *, DDIC , Earlywatch
what is meant by Data Archiving?
A. Removal of application data from the database is called Data Archiving
how to maintain system profiles?
A. We can edit profiles through RZ10 and maintain through RZ11
How do u maintain and create authorization?
through T.Code PFCG
What is a role?
A role is a container for transactions, reports
How do u create a profile
A. t code : su02
how do u do a transportation
A. Through t .code STMS
How do u create a transport request
A. through the t.code SE01
Can u configure TMS?
Say it is already configured and I can configure
How do u maintain Spool Administration?
through SPAD
What is a Spool Server ?
A. The application server in the r/3 system.
28. Do u take backups at your site ?
A. Yes . I take online daily and offline weekend
What is the difference between online and offline
Online – Database will be running but still we can take backups
Offline – Database will be down. I mean we shutdown the database through SAPDBA to take offline backup

29. What is kernel upgrade?
A. Process of replacing Operatins system file with update versions of the same files
We download from service.sap.com the kernel files
Eg of some kernel files : - BRRESTORE, BRCONNECT,SAPSTART,SAPCAR
How do u uncar the kernel file
Example : Car –xvf brrestore.car
Tell me the path of kernel files
usr/sap/<>/sys/exe/run in the run folder we have the kernel files

30. What is purpose of support package?
A. purpose is like we can say to fix problems before they become problem
Where do u download the support package files
usr/sap/trans/eps/in
we apply support patchs by loggin into 000 client as recommended by SAP.

SAP R/3 Release 4 - BA4x

1. What does "enqueue" and "dequeue" mean?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. Puts/reads messages in the SAP message queue.
B. Locks/unlocks SAP objects during database updates.
C. Enables/disables SAP print queues.
D. Reads/writes update messages in the database.

2. Update work processes are categorized as V1 or V2.
Which of the 2 types of Update work processes has priority?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. V1 and V2 work processes are handled simultaneously without priority.
B. V1 and V2 work processes are handled on a first-in-first-out basis.
C. Processing priority is determined by the rdisp/wp_no_vb profile parameter.
D. V1 work processes have priority.
E. V2 work processes have priority.


3. If a user is logged on to a server group, how are dialog work processes assigned to this user?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. The user always remains assigned to the same dialog work process, regardless of server load.
B. Depending on the load of the servers, different dialog work processes of the same R/3 Instance will be assigned to the user.
C. Depending on the load of the servers, different dialog work processes of different instances will be assigned to this user.
D. It is not possible to logon to a server group.


4. If an R/3 Central Instance has the dialog, update, enqueue, background, message, gateway, and spool services installed using Instance ID 01 and connects to a database using the database system identifier C11, what is the R/3 Instance name used in the R/3 Instance Profile?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. DVBMGS01
B. C11_DVEBMGS
C. DVEBMGS01
D. C11_DVEBMS01


5. To use R/3 in a distributed system with an official software license, an SAP license key must be installed.
Where should this license key be installed?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A. On the server where the database is located.
B. On all servers in the distributed system, since a maintenance fee is due on all R/3 servers used.
C. On the server where the message server process is located.
D. On the server defined as the message server.
E. On the server where the dispatcher is located.

6. Which of the following statements are correct in regard to the lock table?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A. The lock table is RSENQUE, is located in R/3, and can be displayed using the ABAP dictionary.
B. The lock table is located in the shared memory of the message server, and can be accessed by all work processes of the message server.
C. The lock table is located in the shared memory of the enqueue server, and can be accessed by all work processes of the enqueue server.
D. For application servers other than the one on which the lock table is located, lock operations are performed in the enqueue work process on the enqueue server.
E. For application servers other than the one on which the lock table is located, lock operations are performed in the message work process on the message server.


7. When you create a new user, to which client may the user log on?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. All clients.
B. Only in the client where the user was created.
C. In the client where the user was created and in client 000.
D. In the client where the user was created and in client 001.


8. What is the name of the program at the operating system level which is used when an ABAP/4 program is used to trigger an external program?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. disp+work
B. gwrd
C. sapevt
D. sapxpg
E. saposcol


9. With which operating system level program do external programs communicate when triggering R/3 System events?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. disp+work
B. gwrd
C. sapevt
D. sapxpg
E. saposcol


10. Which of the following types of steps can be entered when defining background jobs in R/3?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A. BAPIs and SMAPIs
B. ABAP programs
C. External commands (predefined by the system administrator)
D. External RFC steps
E. External programs (direct command input by system administrator )

11. Which of the following statements is correct in regard to using logical commands in background processing in R/3?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. You can only execute operating system commands from a background job using logical commands (external commands).
B. You can execute operating system commands from a background job using physical programs (external programs) or logical commands (external commands).
C. Only background users can execute logical commands (external commands).
D. When defining a logical command (external command) that is to be used in more than one operating system, the name defined must differ for each operating system.
E. Using authorizations, you can only allow a user to either use all logical commands in background processing or none. You cannot authorize a user for a subset of all logical commands.


12. When an R/3 instance switches to an operation mode in which no background work processes are available, what happens if background work processes are active in the current operation mode?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. The active background work processes are allowed to complete and the operation mode switch is cancelled.
B. The active background work processes are allowed to complete before the operation mode is switched.
C. The active background work processes are terminated.
D. The active background work processes are suspended and are resumed as soon as background work processes become available.
E. The active background work processes are not terminated immediately, but they are cancelled if "rdisp/max_wprun_time" is exceeded after the operation mode switch


13. Which traces can be switched on and off from within the R/3 System without restarting the Instance?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A. ABAP/4 Trace
B. SQL Trace
C. SYSLOG Trace
D. Dispatcher Trace


14. How does setting the parameter rdisp/TRACE to trace level 2 change the R/3 SYSLOG?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. The rdisp/TRACE output is not listed in the SYSLOG and so has no effect.
B. The SYSLOG contains errors, warnings and informational messages depending on the trace level.
C. Database error logging is enabled but the R/3 SYSLOG is not affected.
D. Depending on the Trace level, SYSLOG messages become more or less detailed.


15. What happens when the SYSLOG file becomes full?
A. Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
B. The system halts and sends an error message.
C. The SYSLOG switches and logging continues.
D. The SYSLOG file is overwritten restarting with block 0.
E. No more error messages will be logged.


16. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. Clients can be copied within a single R/3 System.
B. Clients can be copied between R/3 Systems of the same release.
C. User master records can be copied between clients.
D. The Client Copy tools support the copying of printer definitions between clients.


17. Which of the following is true of creating new clients within an R/3 System?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. Customizing and repository objects from a source client are copied to the new client using the client copy tool.
B. The client transport tool can be used to simultaneously transfer multiple SAP clients from one R/3 System to another in a single action.
C. Log files indicating the success of a new client creation are stored in the home directory of the user initiating the copy.
D. Profiles define the types of client data to be copied.
E. Remote client copies generate large data files at the operating system level.


18. Which of the following statements is correct in regard to R/3 transport domains?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. A transport domain consists of the client-independent table TDOM (the transport domain table) into which all transports (exports or imports) in the R/3 System are logged; to maintain TDOM, use Transaction SM31.
B. In a UNIX-R/3 environment, a transport domain can only be set up if an additional application server is set up on Windows NT and configured as the domain controller.
C. A transport domain consists of all R/3 Systems into or out of which transports are required, and consists of multiple servers.
D. A transport domain consists of all R/3 Systems which form a group for the purposes of transport administration.
E. A transport domain is an interface between the SAP OSS System and all production customer R/3 Systems.


19. Which of the following statements are correct in regard to the Transport Management System (TMS)?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A. For TMS to work, the user ID "TMSADM" must be explicitly created in User Maintenance in each client of each R/3 System.
B. For TMS to work, the user ID "TMSADM" is automatically set up on the Transport Domain Controller in client 000.
C. To enable communication between R/3 Systems through Remote Function Call (RFC), for each R/3 System, TMS creates RFC destinations which can be displayed using Transaction SM59 (Display/Maintain RFC Destinations).
D. To enable communication between R/3 Systems through Remote Function Call (RFC), for each R/3 System and each client, TMS creates RFC destinations which can be displayed using Transaction SM59 (Display/Maintain RFC Destinations).
E. During the configuration of the domain controller, transport domain control data is written to the files DOMAIN.CFG in the transport directory "/usr/sap/trans/bin" or ":\usr\sap\trans\bin".


20. Which of the following options are available as global settings when setting the system change option in R/3 Release 4.0?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A. Modifiable
B. A global option enabling or disenabling changes to Repository and client-independent Customizing objects.
C. Not modifiable.
D. Customer objects modifiable.
E. Original objects modifiable.

21. Which of the following tools can be used to define transport routes an R/3 System landscape?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. The transaction SM31 for tables "TSYST", "TASYS", "TWSYS", "DEVL", and "TDEVC".
B. The Transport Management System.
C. The installation tool R3SETUP.
D. The Workbench Organizer.
E. The Customizing Organizer


22. What is the minimum number of Dialog Work Processes in an SAP Instance?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. Central Instance : 0 , Dialog Instance: 0
B. Central Instance: 0 , Dialog Instance: 1
C. Central Instance: 2 , Dialog Instance: 1
D. Central Instance: 2 , Dialog Instance: 2


23. Which of the following is true of operation modes in R/3?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. Productive operation modes may only be switched manually.
B. Test operation modes may be switched manually or periodically.
C. Operation modes can be used to startup/shutdown SAP instances.
D. Operation modes can be scheduled for specific dates and times.
E. Operation modes must be defined as either productive, test, or demo.


24. What is the user name and password for the R/3 System administrator in a newly installed system (Clients 000 and 001)?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. User name: SAP*, password: ddic
B. User name: SAP*, password: init
C. User name: SAP*, password: 06071992
D. User name: SAP*, password: manager
E. User name: SAP*, password: 19920706


25. Which types of patches are available for R/3 Systems?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A. Hot Packages
B. Correction Release Patches
C. Legal Change Patches
D. Kernel patches
E. SPAU update patches


26. Which of the following statements is correct in regard to how many spool work processes may be configured for each R/3 instance?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. Only one spool work process may be configured for each R/3 instance.
B. Only one spool work process may be configured for the entire distributed system.
C. Any number of spool work processes may be configured, depending on the amount of available shared memory.
D. Only two spool work processes may be configured for each R/3 instance.

27. Which of the following techniques can be used to improve security in R/3?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A. Use connection passwords defined in the SAProuter table.
B. Use Secure Network Communications (SNC) together with 3rd-party products.
C. Set parameters of type "login/..." in file DEFAULT.PFL .
D. Use SECGUI instead of SAPGUI.
E. Use SAPlogon.


28. Which of the following user IDs are standard in R/3?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A. SAPDDIC
B. OPER
C. TMSADM
D. SAPCPIC
E. SAPDBA


29. Which of the following statements are true for the archiving of data in R/3?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A. Each archived table must be reorganized after successful archiving.
B. R/3 archiving objects can be archived in any order.
C. Access times for the archived tables are reduced after archiving.
D. Backup and restore times are reduced after arching.
E. Archiving is only possible when R/3 is shut down.


30. Which of the following statements is correct in regard to update processes?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. Aborted updates in R/3 are always automatically restarted; they will be executed no later than at the next system startup.
B. Updates are never aborted in R/3, since update requests are processed by the update work process synchronously.
C. Aborted updates need to be analyzed and possibly restarted by the system administrator.
D. The correct execution of updates is ensured by the dispatcher.


31. Which of the following statements are correct in regard to table comparison in R/3?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A. Table contents can be compared between R/2 and R/3 Systems.
B. Table contents can be compared between different clients in the same R/3 System.
C. Table contents can be compared between different clients in different R/3 Systems.
D. The contents of the same tables in different clients can be automatically adjusted.
E. Table contents can only be compared directly on the database level.


32. Which of the following components can be secured when Secure Network Communication (SNC) is used?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A. Communication between SAProuter and R/3 instance.
B. Communication between SAPGUI and R/3 instance.
C. Communication between SAPlpd and R/3 instance.
D. Communication between R/3 central instance and database.
E. Communication between RFC interface programs and R/3 instance.

33. Based upon the information indicated in areas 1 and 2 of this Operating System Monitor screen, which of the following is true?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. System CPU resources are not sufficient. A wait situation is possible when many processes are requesting CPU resources.
B. CPU resources are adequate. No performance problems will be encountered.
C. CPU resources are adequate, but performance problems will be encountered because of wait situations sharing the resources.


34. Based upon the information in areas 1 - 3 of this R/3 System Monitoring screen, which of the following statements is true?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. The "load" program consumes much of the available CPU resources.
B. The "load" program consumes much of the available I/O resources.
C. The "load" program cannot be considered a performance degradation factor.


35. This Performance Analysis screen shows a case of excessive object swapping even though there is apparently enough free space in the Program Buffer. Based upon the information indicated, which of the following statements explains why there is so much swapping?
A. Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
B. The indication of object swapping is false and does not express the current situation.
C. There is enough free space but not enough directory entries.
D. The available free space is fragmented and the fragments are not big enough to hold the new programs.


36. How should you buffer a table that is frequently updated?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. Single-record buffering
B. Generic buffering
C. No buffering
D. 100% buffering
E. 50% buffering


37. What can be concluded from the values shown in areas 1 and 2 of this SAP System Process Overview?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. There is an I/O bottleneck. The system is using too much CPU to perform I/O operations.
B. The system is using all the available resources, but there is no critical performance problem.
C. There is too much online processing; use background processing.
D. Although the workload is equally distributed, excessive R/3 System paging and rolling is causing a performance bottleneck.


38. As shown in this Operating System Monitor (Transaction ST06) screen, a high percentage of "system CPU" utilization always indicates operating system resource problems.
Which one of the following factors causes a high percentage of "system CPU" utilization?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. Small number of processors and low CPU power.
B. Poor R/3 memory management configuration.
C. Expensive select statements in ABAP programs.
D. High disk I/O rate.
E. High roll-in and roll-out rates in R/3 work processes causing a high rate of system IPC calls.


39. What does the LOAD AVERAGE value in the indicated area of this Operating System Performance Monitor screen (Transaction ST06) express?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. The percentage of the CPU, I/O, and LAN resources being utilized.
B. The 1, 5, and 15 minute averages of the number of processes in the operating system run queue.
C. The 1, 5, and 15 minute averages of the amount of system swapping activity.
D. The 1, 5, and 15 minute averages of the amount of operating system uptime.


40. Which of the following is actions are possible with the new R/3 Release 4.0 Alert Monitor?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A. Monitoring several R/3 instances with one Alert Monitor
B. Monitoring several R/3 Systems with one Alert Monitor
C. Parts of the new Alert Monitor can be replaced by R/3 Release 3.x Alert Monitors
D. Thresholds can be customized directly from one Alert Monitor
E. R/3 instances can be restarted directly from one Alert Monitor


41. This Performance Analysis screen shows a case of excessive object swapping even though there is apparently enough free space in the buffer.
Based upon the information indicated in areas 1 and 2, which of the following statements is correct?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. There is enough free space but there are not enough directory entries.
B. The operating system swap space or the paging file size needs to be increased.
C. The ABAP program buffer size must be increased.
D. The indication of object swapping is false and does not express the current situation.
E. The available free space is fragmented and the fragments are not big enough to hold the new programs.


42. Which of the following is true in terms of configuring the R/3 Enqueue Service?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. Each R/3 instance may have a locally running enqueue service.
B. The host where the enqueue service runs is defined in the startup profile.
C. There must be exactly 1 enqueue service per SAP System.
D. The enqueue service must be installed on the R/3 Central Instance.


43. Which of the following is true in terms of configuring the R/3 Message Service?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. Each R/3 instance must have a locally running message service.
B. The host where the message service runs is defined in the database parameter profile.
C. There must be exactly 1 message service per SAP System.
D. The message service must run on the R/3 Central Instance.


44. In a networked R/3 System environment consisting of 1 database host and 1 or more Application Servers, 1 Application Server functions as the Update work process server.
Which parameter file contains, by SAP convention, the rdisp/vbname profile parameter?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. The Start profile of the Central Instance host.
B. The global Default profile located on the Central Instance host.
C. The Instance profile of the Central Instance host.
D. The SAPGUI parameter profile of one of the Dialog Instance hosts.
E. The database configuration parameter file.

45. Per SAP convention, which R/3 System profile contains the rdisp/wp_no_vb profile parameter?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. The Start profile.
B. The Global Default profile.
C. The Instance profile.
D. The SAPGUI parameter profile.
E. The database configuration parameter file.


46. Which of the following statements are correct in regard to the update service?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A. Only one R/3 instance may contain update work processes.
B. At least one V1 update work process (rdisp/wp_no_vb) must be defined per R/3 System.
C. At least one V2 update work process (rdisp/wp_no_vb2) must be defined per R/3 System.
D. If V2 update work processes (rdisp/wp_no_vb2) are configured, all V1 update work processes (rdisp/wp_no_vb) are reserved for V1 updates.
E. A dialog work process never writes directly to the database. Only update work processes have direct database write access.


47. Which of the following is NOT true of the SAProuter?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. The SAProuter is an application level gateway.
B. The SAProuter acts as a secure gateway into and out of a customer's SAP environment.
C. SAProuter will only accept incoming data if it conforms to SAP's own internal protocol and if it is coming in over a predefined port number from a predefined internet address.
D. SAProuter installation is mandatory for connection to the SAP Online Service System (OSS).
E. SAProuter installation is not mandatory for connection to the SAP Online Service System (OSS).


48. For complete network security, SAProuter must be installed together with:
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. Microsoft Windows NT
B. Unix
C. A hardware router.
D. SAProuter offers complete network security without additional hardware investment.
E. A Worldwide Web implementation strategy.


49. Name the R/3 System transaction used for printer and spool administration.
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. SM50
B. SM51
C. SPAD
D. SP01
E. SM37
F. Printing in the R/3 System is handled by the TemSe (storage for Temporary Sequential data) and spool components.

50. Which of the following is NOT true:
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. The TemSe stores the output request data
B. The instance parameter, rspo/store_location, determines whether TemSe data is stored in the database or in an operating system file.
C. TemSe data stored in an operating system file must be backed-up separately from the database data
D. TemSe data stored in the database can be accessed faster by the host operating system spooler than when it is stored in a file
E. TemSe data stored in the database is backed-up when regular database backups are done


51. Which of the following tasks can be performed to maximize spooling performance?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A. Activate the option "Non-Exclusive Spool Server" in Spool Administration (Transaction SPAD).
B. Deactivate the option "Delete after output" under Defaults in the user master records, and run report RSPO0041 as a background job daily.
C. Divide printers into three server classes: production print, high volume print, and desktop print.
D. All printers should use spool access method "U" or "S", to optimize throughput.
E. Configure printers as network printers wherever possible on the operating system level, to enable them to be used from the WAN.


52. Which of the following statements are correct in regard to printers in printer pools?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A. These printers are accessed with spool access method "P".
B. Spool output can be sent to one or more devices in the printer pool.
C. Spool output is always sent to more than one device in the printer pool.
D. You can define pools within pools, with up to 3 layers of pools.
E. You can define pools within pools, with up to 5 layers of pools.


53. When must the Workbench Organizer be configured?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. After all Central and Dialog Instance installations.
B. Whenever a new R/3 Central Instance with database is installed.
C. Immediately after a database software version update.
D. After all R/3 release level upgrades but not after correction level upgrades.


54. Which R/3 facility is used to release a correction/repair?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. Workbench Organizer
B. Transaction SE06
C. Development Workbench
D. Customizing Organizer


55. What is configured in the transport parameter file?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A. The transport parameters for all R/3 Central and Dialog instances.
B. The database host for each of the systems in the system landscape.
C. The R/3 Dialog instance startup parameters.
D. The location of the transport directory.


56. If you create a new R/3 object, what will happen if you specify it as a "Local Private Object"?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. The repair cannot be transported.
B. The repair may be downloaded to become an object accessible at the native database level.
C. The repair will only be active for the user who creates the repair.
D. The "Local Private Object" option will be used when the repair is transported.


57. Which of the following transactions is used to configure the Transport Management System (TMS)?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. Transaction ST01
B. Transaction TTMS (General Table Maintenance)
C. Transaction SE01
D. Transaction STMS
E. Transaction TMS


58. In which of the following operating system files do you set R/3 transport parameters?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. DOMAIN.DSC
B. trans.ini
C. TPPARAM
D. DOMAIN.CFG
E. trans.dsc


59. When must the Workbench Organizer be configured?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. After all R/3 upgrades to functionality releases, but not after upgrades to correction releases.
B. Whenever a new R/3 central instance with database is installed.
C. Immediately after a database software version update.
D. After all central instance and dialog instance installations.


60. To perform any modification in an R/3 System, the modification must be registered with the SAP Software Change Registration (SSCR).
Which of the following DOES NOT apply to SSCR?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. Developers must be registered in the SAP OSS System.
B. All modifications must be registered in the OSS System.
C. The customer's R/3 System must have a correctly installed SAP license.
D. The customer must fax an object modification request to SAP.
E. The R/3 installation number for the system must be valid.


61. Does an SAP owned object have to be assigned to a customer development class in order to be modified?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. Yes. A modification should be assigned to a customer development class. This eliminates the need for a modification adjustment during the upgrade process.
B. No. The object belongs to SAP and is considered standard functionality. The development class provides the object with its needed ownership and must not be changed.
C. Yes. An automatic pop-up window forces a developer to assign a changed SAP object to a new development class.
D. It does not matter because of the flexibility of the system parameter option assignment scheme.
E. No. It will be assigned to a new development class automatically.

62. At which stage in the upgrade process is it necessary to perform an ABAP/4 Dictionary adjustment?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. Immediately following the import of the new ABAP/4 Dictionary.
B. After running the PREPARE script and reviewing the suggestions in the CHECK.log file.
C. This step is performed automatically by ADJUSTIMP and no user interaction is necessary.
D. As part of the post-upgrade procedure.
E. Within 14 days after an upgrade is finished.


63. A repository switch upgrade of an R/3 System involves:
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A. Comparing all modifications with the new SAP standard.
B. Replacing the current customer repository with the new SAP standard.
C. System downtime from the start of the upgrade process.
D. Merging the customer's current SAP Repository with the new SAP standard.
E. Adjusting all customer developed objects with new and improved program logic.


64. Which of the following statements is NOT true of how customers can avoid making modifications to SAP standard objects?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. Make use of enhancement concepts such as program exits and menu exits.
B. Take advantage of the table append technology when changing table definitions.
C. Use Hot Packages to perform program corrections rather than keying in coding changes manually.
D. Create their own repository objects in order to provide additional functionality.
E. Modify their business processes so that the standard SAP software will fulfill all of their requirements.


65. When upgrading R/3 to Release 4.0B, which of the following programs is used during the actual upgrade?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. R3INST
B. PREPARE
C. R3SETUP
D. R3load
E. R3up


66. Which of the following upgrade strategy parameters enables you to avoid interrupting production operation when starting an upgrade?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A. A_IN
B. A_SWITCH
C. A_OUT
D. A_OFF
E. A_ON


67. What is the name of the log file created and written to by the script PREPARE?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. R3up.log
B. PREPARE.log
C. R3put.log
D. Checks.log
E. R3upchk.log


68. When upgrading an R/3 System, which of the following statements are correct in regard to performing modification adjustments for the ABAP Dictionary using Transaction SPDD?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A. The objects which may need to be adjusted are domains, data elements, and reports.
B. Modification adjustments for the ABAP Dictionary are performed after the upgrade.
C. Customer-developed reports in the customer name range are adjusted during the upgrade.
D. Modification adjustments with Transaction SPDD are performed during upgrade to avoid data loss when customers have changed the standard ABAP Dictionary objects.
E. The objects which may need to be adjusted are domains, data elements, and tables; the modification adjustment is performed during the upgrade.


69. When upgrading an R/3 System, which of the following statements are correct in regard to modification adjustment using Transaction SPAU?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A. The objects which may need to be adjusted are tables and reports.
B. Modification adjustments with Transaction SPAU are performed during upgrade to avoid data loss when customers have changed the standard ABAP Dictionary objects.
C. The objects that may need to be adjusted are domains, data elements, and tables.
D. Modification adjustments with Transaction SPAU are performed during upgrade to avoid data loss when customers have changed the standard R/3 Repository objects.
E. Modification adjustment with Transaction SPAU is performed after the upgrade.


70. When upgrading to R/3 Release 4.x, which of the following tools or files can be used to check for errors during the actual upgrade?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A. Upgrade tool PROSA.
B. Upgrade tool R3up.
C. ALOG (for example, ALOG40B).
D. CHECKS.LOG.
E. SLOG (for example, SLOG40B).


71. Which of the following tasks should be performed after an R/3 upgrade?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A. Scheduling report RDDIMPDP, if it is not already scheduled.
B. Installing any required additional software, such as CPI-C libraries, RFC libraries, or Archivelink.
C. Sending the log CHECKS.LOG to the SAP Upgrade Service.
D. Installing additional dialog instances.
E. Testing interface programs in the production R/3 System.


72. Which of the following are prerequisites for an R/3 upgrade?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A. All clients except the productive client must be deleted from the R/3 System.
B. The programs tp and R3trans must be able to connect to the database.
C. The latest Hot Packages must be installed in R/3 before the upgrade can be performed.
D. Checking the upgrade manual to see if you can upgrade to the target R/3 Release from the present R/3 Release.
E. RDDIMPDP must be scheduled in all clients.

73. Which of the following statements are correct in regard to an upgrade for an R/3 System that uses German, English, and Spanish?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A. The R/3 System is automatically upgraded in all three languages.
B. The R/3 System is upgraded only in the standard languages, German and English; to add more languages use the language import tools.
C. A language import must be performed for every additional language.
D. After an upgrade, non-standard languages that were in the pre-upgrade system must be imported using full language imports.
E. After an upgrade, non-standard languages that were in the pre-upgrade system must be imported using incremental language imports.


74. How do you check which upgrade processes or phases are currently active?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A. Check file SLOG.
B. Check file CHECKS.log.
C. Use Transaction SM66.
D. Use Transaction SM21.
E. Check file R3SETUP.log.


75. Which of the following statements are correct in regard to planning and executing an R/3 upgrade?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A. To minimize downtime, all necessary ABAP Dictionary adjustments can be executed prior to the upgrade by using the PREPARE tool.
B. In a two system landscape, it does not matter which R/3 System you upgrade first.
C. Table conversions can be started prior to the upgrade to minimize downtime during the upgrade.
D. An upgrade project plan is not required, as all programs used during upgrade log all results.
E. A new R/3 kernel can only be installed during the upgrade and not prior to the upgrade.


76. What type of table is of type 'TRANSP'?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. A table used for Transporting data between SAP systems.
B. A table which is reproduced 1:1 in the database.
C. A table which is invisible for native SQL.
D. A table which is accessible for all SAP clients.


77. Structures and their attributes which do not have records in the database are what kind of tables?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. Cluster tables
B. Pool tables
C. Internal tables
D. External tables


78. In terms of the ABAP/4 Development Workbench, what is a variant?
Please click on the button next to the correct answer.
A. Program selection criteria which can be stored for later use with the same report.
B. A report which was developed by modifying another report.
C. A report which can be used in different R/3 clients.
D. The R/3 release being used during report creation.

79. Which of the following objects are R/3 Repository objects?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A. Screens
B. ABAPs
C. GUIs
D. Macros
E. Function modules


80. What are the new attributes for change requests in the Workbench Organizer in R/3 Release 4.0?
Note! More than one answer is correct. Please click on the buttons next to the correct answers.
A. A change request can receive the attribute SAPHOT to indicate a Hot Package change request.
B. A change request can receive the attribute SAPOSS to indicate an OSS Hotline Instruction change request.
C. A change request can receive the attribute SAPNOTE to indicate an Advanced Correction change request.
D. A change request can receive the attribute SAPDEV to indicate a development change request.
E. A change request can receive the attribute SAPMOD to indicate a modification change request.

SAP ADM325

1) Software Logistics provide: (Single Choice)
a. Procedure for Central User Administration
b. Procedure for Development / Customizing
c. Procedure for Post Installation Steps
d. Process to help you monitor your system externally

2) The administrator wants to deactivate the import of all the requests in an import queue for a SAP System, he should set which parameter? (Single Choice)
a. IMPORT_ALL_NO
b. IMPORT_ALL_STOP
c. NO_ALL_IMPORT
d. NO_IMPORT_ALL

3) The area of CTS that schedules and monitors the importing of Change Request is: (Single Choice)
a. Workbench Organizer
b. Transport Organizer
c. TMS
d. CTS

4) The transaction used for Cross-System Viewer and Client Transport – Export Processing is: (Single Choice)
a. SUC0/SCC7
b. SCU0/SCC7
c. SUC0/SCC8
d. SCU0/SCC8

5) Types of Client Specific Data? (Multiple Choice)
a. Dictionary Data
b. User Data
c. Master Data
d. Transaction Data

6) Select the correct statements pertaining to TMS configuration (Multiple Choice)
a. Several transport groups can be in a transport domain
b. Transports can take place in the different transport groups
c. Transport layer is not required while defining transport routes
d. Only one transport layer can be defined in the system at any given time

7) Which of the following are the Transport directories? (Multiple Choice)
a. bin
b. actlogs
c. profile
d. tmp
e. log

8) List the Transport Requests that are generated during Client Export and the description of each request giving the type of data exported

Sr. No.
Request Name
Description










9) Transaction Code used for Transport Management System / Transport Organizer is: (Multiple Choice)
a. STMS / SE09
b. SMTS / SE10
c. STMS / SE10
d. STSM / SE01

10) Which of the following is NOT a profile that can be used for client copies? (Multiple Choice)
a. SAP_USER – User master records
b. SAP_ACUST – Application & Customizing data
c. SAP_EXBC – Client dependent/independent Customizing & Users
d. SAP_MAST – Master data only

11) You can get Support Packages from the following places (Multiple Choice)
a. SAP Service Marketplace
b. SAPNet-R/3 Frontend
c. Online Documentation CD
d. HelpSAP.com
e. Collection CDs

12) Why did SAP introduced CRTs?
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________


13) BW Support Package for Release 30B will be named according to which format? (Single Choice)
a. SAPBW30B
b. SAPKY30B
c. SAPKW30B
d. SAPKB30B

14) Which tool is used for carrying out R/3 Upgrade (Single Choice)
a. PREPARE
b. SPAU
c. R3UP
d. SPDD

15) List the differences between Local Client Copy & Remote Client Copy

Sr. No.
Local Client Copy
Remote Client Copy
1


2


3


4




16) The logs generated by ‘tp’ tool are: (Multiple Choice)
a. tp system log
b. Transport Step Monitor
c. ULOG
d. <6>.


17) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to preliminary imports? (Multiple Choice)
a. SAP recommends using preliminary imports rather than imports of the entire queue
b. Preliminary imports should only be performed in exceptional cases
c. Change request imported as preliminary imports remain in the queue and are imported again when an import of the entire queue is performed
d. Change request are deleted from the import queue after a preliminary import is performed

18) Parallel Processing in case of Client Copy is: (Single Choice)
a. Performed in Local Client Copy
b. Performed in Client Transport
c. Performed when you want to do other client copy in parallel
d. Not recommended by SAP

19) Explain the meaning of Consolidation Route & Delivery Route (Not more than 30 words)
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________


20) Which are the two most frequently used Change Request Types available in Transport Organizer? Give a short description of each one
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________


21) Which of the following best describes SAP Customizing? (Single Choice)
a. Writing new ABAP Programs to satisfy business needs
b. Entering Master data
c. Configuring business process to meet the requirements
d. Installing the R/3 software as per recommendations
e. Creating users and granting authorizations

22) The Customizing Client should have the option in SCC4 as: (Single Choice)
a. No Changes Allowed
b. Changes w/o automatic recording of changes
c. Automatic recording of changes
d. Changes w/o automatic recording, no transports allowed

23) Before releasing a change request, the following tasks should be completed (Multiple Choice)
a. All tasks must have previously been released
b. SE09 needs to be installed
c. TMs has to be configured
d. All tasks must have previously been tested





24) List at least three things that are automatically generated when a Transport Domain Controller is first created
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________


25) Draw a Transport Route (in Graphical Editor Mode) for a 3 system landscape with SIDs D01 (Development), Q01 (Quality), P01 (Production). Include another Production system with SID P02 in the transport Route. The IT Department decides to have the development changes to be transported to Training System with SID T01 for urgent training requirements. Place the same in the Transport Route? (Use assumptions wherever required)

SAP ADM100

1) What is SAP Instance? (Single Choice)
a. Group of Database that make a system runnable
b. Group of SAP instances that make a system runnable
c. Group of Services that make a system runnable
d. Group of O/S level Files that make a system runnable
2) What is the name of the DEFAULT Profile in SAP System? (Single Choice)
a. DEFAULT.imp
b. DEFAULT.prof
c. DEFAULT.pfl
d. DEFAULT.ini
3) Spool Request is created by which Work Process? (Single Choice)
a. Spool Work Process
b. Dispatcher
c. Message Server
d. Dialog Work Process
4) What is the Profile Parameter name used to set the Trace Level in SAP system? (Single Choice)
a. rdisp/trace_level
b. rdisp/tracelevel
c. rdisp/LEVEL
d. rdisp/TRACE
5) The Standard SAP User SAP* has the following password (Single Choice)
a. 06071992
b. 19920706
c. 07061992
d. 19920607
6) What is the order in which the Profile files are read during the system start? (Single Choice)
a. DEFAULT, INSTANCE & START
b. INSTANCE, DEFAULT & START
c. START, INSTANCE, DEFAULT
d. START, DEFAULT, INSTANCE
7) Transaction Code used for Profile Maintenance / Job overview is: (Single Choice)
a. PFCG / SM37
b. RZ11 / SM36
c. RZ10 / SM37
d. RZ03 / SM37
8) What will happen if a background job is running and the Operation Mode Switch is activated in between? (Single Choice)
a. The job will be cancelled
b. The job will be put in Suspended state
c. The Job will continue to run and once it finishes then the Operation Mode Switch will occur
d. The Operation Mode will happen the next day
9) State whether the followings statements are True or False:
a. W Gate should always be on Web Server
b. A Gate should always be coupled with W Gate
c. SAP System should be installed on NT Operating System
d. Dual Host Installation in ITS means A Gate and W Gate are on the same host
10) From SAP System which process is used to start External Command / Program (Single Choice)
a. sapxpg
b. sapevt
c. disp+work.exe
d. gwrd
11) ‘Event-Based Job Scheduler’ runs on every instance (True / False)
12) Printer Name in SAP is not case sensitive (True / False)
13) SAP System has a Operation Mode configured. There are performance issues in the System and finally the BASIS administrator adds RAM (Physical Memory) to the Server. He configures few parameters and increases the no. of work processes. The BASIS administrator needs to redefine Operation Mode to take effect of the new processes –(True/False)
14) The standard System Landscape recommended by SAP is: (Single Choice)
a. DEV, QAS & PRD systems on one Server
b. DEV & QAS on one server and PRD on another server
c. DEV, QAS & PRD on separate server
d. DEV on one server and QAS & PRD on one server
15) Access Method is: (Single Choice)
a. Connection between Dialog & Spool Work Process
b. Connection between OS Spool and the Actual Printer
c. Connection between Spool Work Process and OS Spool
d. Connection between Spool Request & Output Request
16) Locking Process of SAP Transactions is carried out by: (Single Choice)
a. Enqueue
b. Dialog
c. Spool
d. Background
17) Spool Data is stored in which table: (Single Choice)
a. TSP01
b. TSP03
c. TST03
d. TSP02
18) From External Program which process is used to trigger an event in SAP System? (Single Choice)
a. sapxpg
b. sapevt
c. disp+work.exe
d. icmon
19) In 3 system landscape from where the request can be imported in QAS system (Single Choice)
a. Only from DEV
b. Only from QAS
c. Only from PRD
d. From all three systems
20) State whether the following statements are True/False in case of Note Assistant: (Multiple Choice)
a. No SPDD modification adjustment required during upgrade / when importing Support Packages
b. SSCR request is required
c. Changes are noted in Modification Assistant (SE95)
d. Changes are done through SNOTES transaction
21) While importing Support Packages you need to do the following. State True/False:
a. Update SPAM/SAINT update with latest version
b. Client 000 is not to be used for importing
c. Import must always be performed during peak operations
d. Aborted packages must be kept untouched
22) Uses of Solution Manager (Multiple Choice)
a. Operations Portal
b. Solution Monitoring
c. Support Portal
d. Transaction Creation Portal
23) CCMS Monitoring Infrastructure consists of: (Single Choice)
a. Data Migration
b. Data Collection
c. Data Storage
d. Data Archiving
24) The following are the components of a DB: (Multiple Choice)
a. Database Buffer
b. Data Files
c. SAP Kernel
d. Special DB Processes
25) ICM (Internet Communication Manager) is a Process (True/False)

SAP TADM12

1) Which of the following components indicate that R3 is a client / server system?
Multiple DB’s
Database server
3 separate hardware servers (DB, applcn & presentation server)
Db service, app service & presentation service

2) Which of the following is not contained in R/3 DB?
a. The R/3 Repository
b. The R/3 kernel
c. Customer Data
d. Transaction data
e. Customizing Data
f. The ABAP dictionary

3) Which of the following is correct in regard to R/3 clients?9/15/2003
a. The R/3 client has it’s own customer data and programs which are not accessible to other clients within the same R/3 system.
b. An R/3 client has all R/3 repository objects and client independent customizing with all other clients in the R/3 system
c. An R/3 client shares customizing and Applcn data with other clients in the same R/3 system
d. An R/3 client enables you to separate applcn data from customizing data

4) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to SAP Client Concept
a. All customizing settings are client independent
b. A client has unique set of applcn data
c. A client has it’s own repository objects
d. All customizing settings are client dependant

5) Which of the following strategies enables R/3 customers to avoid making modifications to SAP Std objects?
a. Using Enhancement techs such as Program exits & menu exits
b. Modifying SAP delivered programs
c. Changing SAP std functionality using the IMG
d. Performing customizing to provide the required functionality

6) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to IMG?
a. The IMG consists of series of customizing activities for defining a Companies Business process
b. The IMG is a online resource providing the necessary info and steps to help you implementing the R/3 applcn Modules
c. IMG is client independent
d. All of the above

7) Which of the following strategies enables an Enterprise to meet its business needs by changing or enhancing R/3 functionality
a. Maintaining application data using the Various R3 Business transactions in the SAP Std
b. Using the ABAP workbench to create the read R/3 repository objects
c. Using customizing to modify R/3 programs after obtaining an access key from OSS
d. Using customer Exits to enhance the functionality of existing SAP Objects

8) Which of the following statements are correct in regards to modifications
A a modification is a change to an SAP Std object
b. A modification must be registered using the SAP OSS (SSCR)
c. SAP recommends modification only if customer’s business meets cannot be me by customizing enhancement techs or customer dev
d. All the above

9) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to the customizing
a. Customizing enables R/3 applcn process to be set to reflect a companies business needs
b. Customizing can be performed only from within IMG
c. Customizing is necessary because R/3 delivered w/o Business process.
d. None of the above

10) Which of the following is correct in regard to R/3 repository
a. Customers can develop new repository objects using tools in the ABAP workbench.
b. Customer developed repository objects reside in the R/3 repository alongside std repository objects
c. Customers can create & assign new repository objects to a development class
d. All of the above


11) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to critical client roles as recommended by SAP?
a. Customizing changes can be made in any client
b. All customizing & dev changes should be made in a single R/3 client
c. Repository object should be created and changed in R/3 Quality assurance client (QAS)
d. Unit testing should take place in the customizing and dev client

12) Which of the following activities should not be performed within a system landscape
a. Customizing & dev changes are promoted to a QAS client before being delivered to PRD
b. The R/3 system is upgraded to a new R/3 release
c. Dev changes are mad directly in the PRD client
d. Changes are assigned to a specific role

13) Which of the following benefits does the 3-system landscape recommended by SAP have?
a. Customizing and dev, testing, and prod activities take place in separate DB environments and do not affect one another
b. Changes are tested in the QAS system and imported in the PRD system only after verification
c. Client independent changes can be made in the DEV system w/o immediately affecting the PRD client
d. All of the above

14) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to multiple R/3 clients?
a. All clients in the same R/3 system share the same R/3 repository and client independent customizing settings
b. No more than one client in the same R/3 system should allow changes to client independent customizing changes.
c. If a client allows for changes to client dependent customizing, the client should also allow for changes to Client independent customizing objects
d. All of the above.

15) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to setup of 3-system landscape
a. There is only R/3 DB for the system landscape
b. One client should allow for the automatic recording of client dependent customizing and client independent changes.
c. All R/3 systems have the same System ID (SID)
d. All clients must have unique client numbers

16) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to the CUST client
a. It should allow changes to client independent customizing, but not repository objects
b. It should automatically record all changes to customizing settings
c. It should not allow changes to client dependent and client independent customizing settings
d. It should allow for all changes, but not require recording of changes to change request.

17) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to the 2-system landscape
a. It is not optimal because 2 is limited opportunity to test the transport of changes from the DEV system to the PRD system
b. It allows for changes to Customizing in the PRD system
c. It is recommended by SAP because Customizing and DEV do not impact QAS testing.
d. All of the above

18) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to Phase implementation.
a. All CUST changes made in PRD support system must also be made in the DEV system
b. The system landscape requires 5 R/3 systems
c. Changes in the PRD support system do not have to be made in the DEV env
d. The system landscape needs an env that supports a PRD system with any reqd changes.

19) Which of the following statements is not valid in regard to global system landscape
a. A global template can be used for the roll out of corporate CUST settings and DEV efforts
b. Management of different repository objects can be managed using name spaces, and name ranges for the repository objects
c. Merging and CUST settings delivered by the corporate office with local CUST efforts can easily be done using change requests
d. SAP provides different tools to aid the roll-out of a global template.

20) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to CUST and DEV changes?
a. all changes are recorded to task in CUST change request
b. the changes should be recorded to tasks in change requests for transport to other clients and systems
c. the changes must be manually performed in every R/3 system
d. the changes can easily be made simultaneously in multiple clients.


21) Which of the following statements in regard to change requests is false?
The customizing organizer and the workbench organizer are tools used to view, create and manager change request
A change request is a collection of tasks where developers and people performing customizing record the changed they make.
All changes made as a result of IMG activities are recorded to customizing change requests.
SAP recommends setting your R/3 system so that customizing changes made in the customizing and development client are automatically recorded to change requests.

22) For which of the following activities is the TMS (tcode STMS) not designed?

Releasing change requests
Viewing import queues
Viewing log files generated by both the export process and the import process
Initiating the import process

23) Which of the following statements is correct after you have successfully imported change request into the quality assurance system?

The change requests must be released again to be exported to the production system.
The data files containing the changed objects are deleted from the transport directory
The change requests need to be manually added to the import queue of the production system
The change requests are automatically added to the import queue of the production system.

24) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to the change requests in an import queue?

They are sequenced according to their change request number.’
They are sequenced in the order in which they were exported from the development system
They are sequenced according to the name of the user who released the requests
They are not sequenced by default, but arranged in a variety of ways using the TMS

25) Which of the following techniques can be used to transfer application data between two PRD systems?
Recording transaction data to change requests
Using ALE to transfer application data
Using the client copy tool
All the above

26) Which of the following types of data transfer are possible within appropriate use of interface technologies?
Transferring legacy data to an R/3 system
Transferring data between R/3 clients
Transferring data to non-SAP systems
Transporting change requests to multiple R/3 systems

27) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to user master data?
User master data can be transported in a change request
User master data is unique to each R/3 system, but is shared across clients in the same R/3 system.
A specific client copy option enables you to distribute user master data together with authorization profile data
User master data included all user logon information, including the definition of authorizations and profiles
28) Which of the following clients should u copy to create new clients and ensure that all data from post installation processing is also copied?
a. Client 000
b. Client 001
c. Client 066

29) Which of the following is not a SAP recommended strategy for setting up a system landscape
a. Using a client copy from the DEV system to set up your QAS and PRD system when the change request strategy is not an option
b. Creating the PRD system as a combination of a client copy from the QAS system and change request from the DEV system
c. Using the same setup strategy to establish both the QAS and PRD systems
d. Setting up the QAS and PRD system by importing Change requests prompted from the DEV system

30) Which of the following are correct in regard to setup of TMS?
a. The TMS should be setup when the DEV system is installed
b. The TMS should include all R/3 systems in the system landscape even if the R/3 systems do not physically exist
c. The TMS is critical in establishing the Transport between the DEV & QAS system
d. The TMS should be setup before the Change request is created in the CUST and DEV client

31) Which of the following is correct in regard to system copy strategy
a. SAP recommends the system copy strategy because all CUST & DEV objects are transferred
b. SAP does not recommend the system copy strategy because there is no easy to eliminate the unwanted APPLCN data
c. A system copy is the easiest set of strategy recommended by SAP
d. A system copy eliminates the need for change requests for the entire R/3 implementation

32) Which of the following activities is not necessary for exporting a change request
a. Documenting every task in the request
b. Releasing every task in the change request
c. Verification of the contents of the change request by the system administrator
d. Unit testing the change request.

33) Which of the following is correct in regard to the task used in the change request that record CUST & DEV changes
a. Task belongs to change request
b. Task can be used by several R/3 users
c. Task are direct responsibility of the Project leader
d. Task records only client specific changes

34) Which of the following indicates that the change request has been signed off after QAS testing.
a. The change request has been released after unit testing.
b. The change request has been successfully imported into the QAS system
c. The change request is added into the import queue of all other R/3 systems in the system landscape
d. The project leader communicates the approval of the change request

35) Which of the following is NOT an SAP recommendation
a. Imports into the QAS & PRD system should occur in the same sequence.
b. Even if the import process is automatically scripted a technical consultant or system admin should revise the result of the import
c. The project leader should manually add a change request to import queue of the QAS system
d. Change request are imported in the same sequence that they were exported from the DEV system

36) Which of the following is SAP’s recommendation on how to rush an emergency correction into the PRD system
a. Make the changes directly in the PRD system
b. Transport the changes from the DEV system to QAS system & PRD system using preliminary import
c. Make the change and use a client copy with change request to distribute the changes into PRD
d. Make the change in the QAS system and transport using preliminary import

37) Which of the following transport activities is not typically the responsibility of the system admin
a. Importing change request into all clients within R/3 system
b. Verifying the success of import process
c. Releasing the change request
d. Assisting in solving either export or import errors

38) Which of the following does SAP provide a customer support?
a. R/3 release upgrade to provide new functionality
b. Support packs to correct identified problems in a specific R/3 release
c. R/3 notes to announce errors & corrections for reported problems
d. All of the above

39) The R/3 system ID (SID)
a. Must be unique for each system sharing the same transport directory
b. Must be unique for each system in the system landscape
c. Can start with a number
d. Can consist of any 3 char combination

40) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to the TRANS dir
a. There can be only one TRANS dir in a system landscape
b. All R/3 systems within Transport group share a common TRANS dir
c. In a system landscape using heterogeneous platforms it is not possible to have a common TRANS dir
d. Only the PRD system can contain the TRANS dir

41) The Transport control program TP
a. Is stored in subdirectory bin of TRANS dir
b. Uses program R3TRANS to access the DB when transporting changes
c. Cannot be used directly on the OS level
d. Depends on the settings of the transport profile

42) The transport profile
Is stored in subdirectory bin of TRANS dir
Contains comments and parameter settings that configure the transport control program TP
Is managed from within TMS as of release 4.5, but is modified with OS text editors in earlier release
Contains only settings that are valid for all R/3 systems in the system landscape


43) The initialization procedure of the CTO

Is especially required after a system copy
Establishes the initial value for change request Ids
Is not mandatory for the purpose of enabling transports
Is performed automatically during R/3 installation by program R3setup

44) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to the settings governing changes to repository objects

Only the customer name range should be modifiable in production systems.
Developments are possible in an R/3 system only if you have applied for a development namespace from SAP
If the global change option is set to not modifiable, it nevertheless possible to make changes in certain name spaces or clients that has their change option set to modifiable.
The global change option should always be set to not modifiable for the quality assurance system and the production system.



45) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to the R/3 systems belonging to a transport domain?
They all share the same transport directory
They are managed centrally using TMS
They belong to the same transport group
They must run on the same operating system and database platform

46) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to the domain controller?
It must be the production system
It occurs once in a transport domain
It occurs in each transport group
It can only be the R/3 system that was originally designated as the transport domain controller
It should never be the production system due to the high system load that the domain controller causes

47) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to the TMS?
It needs to be initialized only on the transport domain controller
It needs to be initialized only on the transport domain controller and the backup domain controller
It must be initialized on every R/3 system
It must be set up before you can set up transport routes

48) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to the RFC destinations for TMS connections?
They are generated automatically when a transport route is created
They are generated between the domain controller and each R/3 system in the transport domain
They must be established manually before you can use the TMS
They are generated during the TMS initialization process
They are only needed for importing change requests

49) How is the actual system landscape, including R/3 system roles and relationships, defined using the TMS?
By including all R/3 system in the transport domain
By configuring transport routes
By assigning a role to each R/3 system during the TMS initialization process
By designating real, virtual, and external R/3 systems

50) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to a consolidation route?
It is defined by an integration system and a consolidation system, and is associated with a transport layer
It is created in the TMS by defining only an integration system and a consolidation system
It is not necessarily required in a two-system landscape
It can be defined only once in a transport group

51) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to client-specific transport routes?
A. They are possible as of R/3 Release 4.0
B. They are possible only as of R/3 Release 4.5, and only if extended transport control is activated
C. They are only allowed for target groups
D. They may not be used in conjunction with client-independent transport routes

52) After you create a new client entry in table T000, which of the following activities enables you to provide the client with data?
A remote client copy to populate the client with data from a client in another R/3 system
A client transport to import data from a client in another R/3 system
A local client copy to import data from a client within the same R/3 system
All of the above

53) Which of the following cannot be used to restrict a client from certain activities?
The client role
The client-dependent change option
The client ID-number
A client restriction
The client-independent change option

54) Which of the following tasks can be performed using the client copy tools?
Merging application data from one client into another client
Copying only application data from one client to another client
Copying only Customizing data from one client to another client
All of the above

55) Which of the following tasks can be performed using the client copy profiles?
Scheduling a client copy to occur at a time when system use is low
Selecting the subset of application data that will be copied when a client copy is executed
Providing required user authorization for the use of client tools
Determining the data that will be copied when a client copy is executed

56) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to table logging?
Table logging should be used instead of change requests whenever possible
Table logging provides an audit history of who made what changes and when
Table logging does not negatively impact system resources
All of the above

57) Which of the following statements is false in regard to development classes?
A. Development classes facilitate project management by grouping similar Repository objects
B. All Repository objects are assigned to a development class
C. A development class determines the transport route that a changed Repository object will follow
D. A local object does not need a development class

58) Which of the following kinds of changes are transported using Workbench change requests?
Client-independent changes
Modifications to SAP-delivered objects
Changes made using the ABAP Editor and ABAP Dictionary
Repairs to R/3 Repository objects that originated in another R/3 System
All of the above

59) Which of the following data is not contained in the object list of a task?
A. The actual change made to the objects listed in the task
B. The list of changed objects recorded to the task
C. Whether the objects recorded to the task are locked
D. The complete Object Directory entry for the object

60) Which of the following statements are correct regarding repairs and modifications?
Repairs are changes to SAP-delivered objects; modifications are changes to any object that originated on an R/3 System other than the current R/3 System
A repair flag protects an R/3 Repository object against being overwritten by an import
All repairs are saved to Workbench change requests
A modification is a change to an SAP-delivered object
All of the above

61) Which of the following requirements must be met before you can change both client-dependent and client-independent Customizing settings in a client?
A. The client settings must allow for changes to client-independent Customizing objects
B. The client role must be Production
C. The system change option must be set to Modifiable
D. The client settings must allow for changes to client-dependent Customizing

62) Which of the following statements are correct when project leaders and project team members receive only the recommended authorizations?
A. Only developers can create change requests
B. Only project leaders can create change requests, and are therefore responsible for assigning project team members to change requests
C. Project team members can create and release change requests
D. Project leaders can release change requests

63) Which of the following statements are correct with regard to Project IMGs?
A. The Project IMG provides access to the Customizing activities defined for a particular project
B. Customizing is performed in the project IMG tree structure
C. The Project IMG enables you to display project status information and document Customizing activities
D. All of the above

64) Which of the following activities are performed using the Customizing Organizer?
A. Viewing all Customizing change requests related to a particular user
B. Viewing all Workbench change requests related to a particular user
C. Viewing all change requests related to a particular user
D. Managing change requests you own or reviewing change requests in which you have assigned tasks

65) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to Customizing?
A. All Customizing activities in the IMG activities can be transported
B. All changes resulting from IMG activities can be transported
C. All Customizing changes are automatically recorded to a change request if the client change option is set to Automatic recording of changes
D. A Customizing activity may involve the creation of client-independent objects and therefore requires Workbench change request

66) Which of the following activities are performed using client comparison tools?
A. Comparing the customizing settings of two R/3 clients in the same R/3 System or in a different R/3 System
B. Adjusting the Customizing differences between two different R/3 clients
C. Transporting Customizing settings into the production client
D. Comparing the objects listed in the object list of a change request with an R/3 client

67) Which of the following is a prerequisite for copying client-dependent changes to a unit test client using a client copy according to a transport request (Transaction SCC1)?
A. The change request has been released
B. The tasks have been released, but the change request has not
C. The tasks have been released after successful unit testing by the owner of the task
D. The change request has not been released

68) Which of the following are the results of releasing a task?
A. A data file is created in the transport directory and contains the objects recorded in the change request
B. The object list and documentation for the task are copied to the change request
C. All objects recorded in the task are locked
D. You can no longer save changes to that task

69) Which of the following are result of releasing and exporting a change request?
A. A data file is created in the transport directory to contain copies of the objects recorded in the change request
B. Versions are created in the version database for all R/3 Repository objects in the object list of the change request
C. All repairs recorded in the change request are confirmed
D. You can no longer save changes to that change request

70) When you release a Customizing change request, you have the option to do which of the following?
A. Release the change request to another Customizing change request
B. Schedule the release of the change request for a late time
C. Release the change request to a transportable change request
D. Initiate immediate release and export

71) Which of the following is a prerequisite for releasing a transportable change request?
A. There are no syntax errors in the ABAP programs recorded to the change request
B. You must own the tasks in the change request
C. All Repository objects in the change request are locked by the change request
D. The change request has documentation

72) The export process initiates which of the following activities?
A. The creation of files in the transport directory
B. The automatic import of change requests into the target system—for example, the quality assurance system
C. The addition of the exported change request to the import buffer of the target system
D. The deletion of the change request within the R/3 System

73) Which of the following activities result in a version history for all Repository objects?
A. A Repository object is recorded to a change request
B. Change requests are imported into an R/3 System, and the transport parameter vers_at_imp is activated
C. A task containing a Repository object is released
D. A change request containing a Repository object is released

74) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to import queues?
A. Import queues are the TMS representation of the import buffer on the operating system level
B. You have to manipulate import queues to transport change requests
C. Import queues should be closed before starting an import using TMS
D. You can import only an entire import queue

75) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to preliminary imports?
A. SAP recommends using preliminary imports rather than imports of entire queues.
B. Preliminary imports should be performed only in exceptional cases
C. Change requests imported as preliminary imports remain in the import queue
D. Change requests are deleted from the import queue after preliminary imports. This prevents them from being imported gain with the next import of the entire import queue

76) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to imports into an R/3 System?
A. Imports can be performed only by using the start import functionality in the TMS
B. Imports can be performed only by using tp commands on the operating system level to prepare the import queue and then using the start import functionality in the TMS
C. Imports can be performed only by using tp commands at the operating system level
D. Imports can be performed by using either a tp command on the operating system level or the TMS import functionality

77) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to transports between different transport groups?
A. They are not possible
B. They can be performed only by using tp on the operating system level with special options
C. They can be performed using the TMS with special options provided by the expert mode
D. They require you to adjust the corresponding import queues

78) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to transports between different transport domains?
A. They are not possible
B. They require you to create a virtual system and a virtual transport directory
C. They require you to configure identical transport groups within the different transport domains
D. They require you to create external systems and an external transport directory
E. They require you to adjust the corresponding import queues.

79) Which of the following statements re correct in regard to the transport control program tp?
A. To perform imports, tp must always be used directly on the operating system level
B. SAP recommends that you use the TMS instead of tp to perform imports
C. tp is responsible for exporting and importing objects from and to R/3 Systems
D. tp does not observe the sequence of change requests in the import queue when performing imports

80) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to import queues and import buffers?
A. Import queues are TMS representations in R/3 of the import buffer files on the operating system level
B. Import queues and import buffers are completely independent of each other
C. Import buffers have to be manipulated before imports can be performed on the operating system level
D. Manipulating import buffers may cause serious inconsistencies and should be performed only in exceptional cases.

81) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to the import options formerly known as unconditional modes?
A. Import options cannot be used when imports are performed on the operating system level using tp.
B. Import options are used to cause specific rules of the Change and Transport System (CTS) to be ignored
C. Import options must be used when importing into multiple clients using tp.
D. Import options can be selected in the TMS using the expert mode

82) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to the sequence of processing steps tp follows when performing imports?
A. tp collectively processes each import step for all change requests in an import queue before proceeding with the next import step
B. tp processes all import steps for a single request before proceeding to the next change request
C. The processing sequence followed by tp ensures that when a change request with a faulty object is followed in the import queue by a change request with the corrected object, the faulty object will not affect the runtime environment of the target system
D. tp imports and activates ABAP Dictionary structures prior to the main import phase to ensure that the current structures are able to receive new data during the main import phase.

83) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to troubleshooting imports?
A. In R/3, you cannot display log files that do not depend on a specific request. For example, you cannot display log files related to generic import steps, such as structure conversion.
B. SAP recommends that you check the SLOG file and the ALOG file before checking the single step log files.
C. By default, all return codes greater than eight cause tp to abort a running import
D. tp is the only transport tool that uses return codes.

84) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to buffer synchronization?
A. Transport activities do not affect buffer synchronization
B. Imports affect buffer synchronization even in central R/3 systems
C. R3trans can invalidate buffer content
D. Importing data into a production system can significantly impact performance, because some buffer content may be invalidated and reloaded. This causes high system load
E. Importing programs and ABAP Dictionary data cannot cause inconsistencies in the target system, even if the programs or data affect running programs and their environment

85) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to the interaction between transport tools?
A. During exports, tp calls R3trans to access the database of the source system and extract the objects to be transported
B. tp triggers the transport daemon RDDIMPDP in R/3 using the operating system tool sapevt
C. Using the tables TRBAT and TRJOB, tp communicates with ABAP programs involved in the transport process
D. tp communicates with only RDDIMPDP

86) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to the R/3 Release strategy?
A. Functional Releases are automatically shipped to all customers
B. Correction Releases provide only corrections and no new functionality with respect to the previous R/3 Functional Release
C. Functional Releases receive only limited OCS maintenance; that is, only very urgent corrections are available as Support Packages
D. R/3 Release upgrades are possible only for Correction Releases

87) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to Support Packages?
A. Support Packages change the SAP standard of your R/3 System in advance of the next R/3 Release upgrade
B. You can apply all types of Support Packages to all R/3 installations, regardless of the components used in the installation
C. Support Packages are available only to customers who are participants in the First Customer Shipment (FCS) program
D. Different types of Support Packages may be required for R/3 Installations with different components

88) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to the SAP Patch Manager?
A. The SAP Patch Manager ensures that Support Packages are applied in the correct sequence
B. The SAP Patch Manager does not check whether the type of Support Package you wish to apply is appropriate for your R/3 installation. It is up to you to decide whether, for example, you require a Conflict Resolution Transport.
C. The SAP Patch Manager does not offer you the chance to protect SAP objects that you have modified. These objects are automatically overwritten.
D. The SAP Patch Manager automatically prompts you to call the modification adjustment Transactions SPDD or SPAU if necessary

89) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to R/3 Release upgrades?
A. Objects in the customer namespace are not overwritten
B. A Repository switch is the replacement of your current R/3 Repository by the R/3 Repository in the new R/3 Release
C. All customer modifications to ABAP Dictionary object are lost
D. Customer modifications to SAP objects that you want to preserve must be transferred to the new Release through the modification adjustment process

90) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to the modification adjustment process?
A. Transaction SPAU is used for most ABAP Dictionary objects
B. Transaction SPDD is used for most ABAP Dictionary objects
C. Not using Transaction SPDD where applicable may cause data loss
D. During modification adjustment, you must choose to return to the SAP standard



Answers:

1. D
2. B
3. B
4. B
5 A, D
6 D
7. B, D
8. D
9 A
10. D
11. B
12. C
13. D
14. D
15. B
16. B
17. A
18. A, D
19. C
20. B
21 C
22. A
23 D
24 B
25 B
26 A, B, C
27 C
28 B
29 B
30 A, B, C, D
31 B
32 C
33 A
34 D
35 C
36 B
37 C
38 D
39 A, B
40 B
41 B, D
42 A, B, C
43 A, B
44 D
45 B
46 B
47 C, D
48 B, D
49 B
50 A
51 B, D
52 D
53 C
54 C
55 D
56 B
57 D
58 E
59 A, D
60 B, C, D
61 A, C, D
62 B, D
63 D
64 A, B, C, D
65 D
66 A, B, D
67 D
68 B, D
69 A, B, D
70 C, D
71 C
72 A, C
73 B, D
74 A, C
75 B, C
76 D
77 D
78 D, E
79 B, C
80 A, D
81 B, C, D
82 A, C, D
83 A, B, C
84 B, C, D
85 A, B, C
86 B, C
87 A, D
88 A, D
89 A, B, D
90 B, C

SAP Windows NT

NT

1 - Which combination of the following R/3 Client/Server System components can be installed using the R3INST tool for Windows NT?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
Batch Instance, Database Instance, Enqueue Instance, Central Instance, R/3 PC Frontends
Central Instance, Dialog Instance, Database Instance
Database Instance, Dialog Instance, Message Instance, Central Instance, R/3 PC Frontends
R/3 PC Frontends, Database Instance, Update Instance, Central Instance
Update Instance, Enqueue Instance, Database Instance, Central Instance, R/3 PC Frontends

2 - All components in this network diagram belong to the same R/3 System group and all R/3 Instance servers communicate with the database installed on DB-1. Systems in LAN 1 and LAN 2 communicate over a wide-area network (WAN).

Which component will generate a significant amount of network traffic and cause network performance problems unless used with a very high capacity data line?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. FE-1, Frontend PC in LAN 1.
B. FE-3, Frontend PC in LAN 2.
C. CI-1, Central Instance in LAN 1.
D. DI-1, Dialog Instance in LAN 1.
E. DI-2, Dialog Instance in LAN 2.

3 - The layout and set up of the R/3 System Landscape in terms of R/3 Instance and server distribution, user frontends and printers, and the R/3 network topology...

Which of the following will correctly complete this statement?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. is determined by the installer during the installation based upon what he thinks the customer needs.
B. must be discussed and agreed upon with the customer prior to the installation beginning.
C. is not critical because R/3 is always installed the same way.
D. is automatically set up for the most optimal configuration by the R3INST program.
E. is determined by the R/3 salesman. This information is not necessary for the consultant who will be setting up the system.

4 - Which of the following statements applying to R/3 Notes (OSS and CSP Notes) is true?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. The R/3 installation notes are available in all languages.
B. Notes used for installations and upgrades are never changed after they are made available in the Online Service System (OSS).
C. The R/3 installation notes are included with every R/3 Release 3.0 software shipment.
D. Notes are internal SAP documents which are never released outside of SAP because they contain too much internal information.
E. Notes sometime contain references to other R/3 notes. These additional notes may also need to be referenced during installations.

5 - When configuring the virtual memory for an R/3 Instance on a Windows NT Server computer with 256 MB on RAM, what are the recommended values for the paging file "Initial Size" and "Maximum Size" parameters?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Initial size = 2 * RAM (minimum 512 MB), Maximum size = 3 * RAM.
B. Initial size = 3 * RAM + 500MB (minimum 1.25 GB), Maximum size = 3 * RAM + 1 GB (maximum 2 GB).
C. Initial size = 2 * RAM + 100 MB per R/3 workprocess (minimum 1.5 GB), Maximum size = 2 * RAM
D. Initial size = 3 * RAM (minimum 1 GB), Maximum size = 3 * RAM (minimum 1 GB).
E. There is no special requirement for R/3 Instances unless the database is installed on the same computer.

6 - The following general statements concern the implementing of RAID technology as part of an R/3 System implementation.
Which statement is true?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. All R/3 Instance and database components of an R/3 System should be installed on the same RAID 5 device.
B. When using RAID 1 or RAID 5 the database archiving mechanism may be disabled because the hardware setup guarantees data security.
C. Because RAID 1 supports faster disk writes than RAID 5, it should be used for the R/3 database logs.
D. Because RAID 5 supports faster disk writes than RAID 1, it should be used for the R/3 database logs.
E. A software level RAID implementation is more secure than using a hardware level RAID implementation.

7 - The sappfpar program has been executed as part of the R/3 installation.
What can be concluded from the results of the program?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Sappfpar indicates that approximately 1,300 MB of swap is required.
B. Sappfpar indicates that approximately 1,300 MB of swap is required and that the currently available 520 MB of operating system swap is too small.
C. Sappfpar indicates that approximately 1,284.7 MB of main memory (RAM) will be required and that the currently configured 520 MB of operating system swap is sufficient.
D. Sappfpar indicates that there is approximately 520 MB of main memory (RAM) installed and that it should be increased to approximately 1.3 GB.
E. The program results indicate that additional swap and memory should be installed and configured.

8 - Which of the following is not critical in the hardware planning strategy for a central instance and database?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Planned number of R/3 users.
B. Role of the system in the R/3 Transport environment.
C. Number and type of physical disks and controllers.
D. Operating system used on user frontend hardware.
E. Number of R/3 applications.


9 - Which file system type is mandatory for R/3 installations on Windows NT machines?
NOTE: Supply ONLY the abbreviated name of the file system type.
Type the correct answer in the field provided.

A. FAT
B. NTFS
C. FAT32

10 - In a distributed R/3 client/server environment the central instance server name is HS1492 and the dialog instance server name is HW1956.
In terms of UNC naming (Universal Naming Convention), how is the SAP global software referenced by HW1956?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. \\HW1956\SAPLOC.
B. \\HS1492\sapmnt\< sid>.
C. \\HS1492\usr\sap\< sid>.
D. \\HS1492\SAPMNT.
E. \\HS1492\SAPLOC.

11 - In a distributed R/3 client/server environment the central instance server name is HS1492 and the dialog instance server name is HW1956.
In terms of UNC naming (Universal Naming Convention), how is the instance-specific directory referenced on the local host, HW1956?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. \\HW1956\SAPLOC.
B. \\HS1492\sapmnt\< sid>.
C. \\HS1492\usr\sap\\.
D. \\HS1492\SAPMNT.
E. \\HS1492\SAPLOC.

12 - In a distributed R/3 client/server environment with central instance server HS1492 and dialog instance server HW1956.
In terms of UNC naming (Universal Naming Convention), how does HW1956 address the global R/3 transport directory?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. \\HW1956\SAPLOC\trans.
B. \\HW1956\sapmnt\trans.
C. \\HS1492\usr\sap\trans.
D. \\HS1492\SAPMNT\trans.
E. \\HS1492\SAPLOC\trans.

13 - Which of the following statements is true about SAP Systems belonging to the same R/3 transport environment?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Using saprouter makes it possible for systems in different Windows NT domains to transport R/3 objects between them.
B. All systems must belong to the same Windows NT domain or transports are impossible.
C. Unique database system identifiers (SID's) are unnecessary if a trust relationship has been established between 2 R/3 Systems.
D. If R/3 Systems belong to different Windows NT domains, trust relationships should be defined between the domains to facilitate R/3 transports.
E. If systems are not part of the same domain, then they must have corresponding Windows NT Registry entries for the SAPTRANSPORT variable.

14 - Which of the following statements is true?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. The SAP service user should only be enabled during the installation and during upgrades. After the installation and upgrades it should be disabled.
B. If domain A trusts domain B and domain B trusts domain C, then domain A automatically trusts domain C.
C. The SAP Service user needs no special file access authorization for the R/3 program directories.
D. A demo R/3 System installation may be done without assigning a domain as long as the system is not connected to a network.
E. The R/3 administrator interactive and service accounts must be granted "Full Control" to all R/3 files.

15 - Which of the following statements applying to the installation of an R/3 Dialog Instance on a Windows NT computer are true?
Note: There is more than one right answer! Click on the buttons next to the right answers.
A. The \usr\sap\trans directory must be explicitly shared from the central instance to all dialog instance machines in the SAP System landscape.
B. Production R/3 Dialog Instance servers require minimum 256 MB main memory.
C. The additional virtual memory requirement for R/3 memory management only applies to R/3 Central Instances and does not apply to R/3 Dialog Instance machines.
D. Motif (X11) emulation software is required if an Application Server will also serve Unix based R/3 Frontends.
E. All dialog instance machines connecting to the same database should be installed in the same Windows NT domain.

16 - What is the full file name of the shared system profile containing global parameters required by all R/3 Instances in a networked R/3 System environment?
Assume the following example configuration: SAP System ID = C11, Instance ID = 00, R/3 Central Instance installed on node HS1492, R/3 Dialog Instance installed on node HW1956.
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. \\HS1492\sapmnt\C11\SYS\profile\C11_DVEBMGS00.
B. \\HS1492\sapmnt\C11\SYS\profile\DEFAULT.PFL.
C. \\HS1492\sapmnt\C11\SYS\profile\START_DVEBMGS00.
D. \\HS1492\sapmnt\C11\SYS\profile\TEMU.PFL.
E. \\HS1492\sapmnt\trans\.sapconf.

17 - Which of the following tasks are done by the R3INST program during an R/3 System installation on a Windows NT system?
Note: There is more than one right answer! Click on the buttons next to the right answers.
A. Creation of operating system users and groups for R/3.
B. Creation of the operating system level files and directories for R/3.
C. Set up of shares for R/3 directories.
D. Defining of access authorization for SAP and database directories.
E. Converts uppercase database names to lowercase for TCP/IP communications.

18 - Which of the following are manual tasks done by the installer during the R/3 installation for Windows NT (Manual tasks are those tasks which are not done by the R3INST program)?
Note: There is more than one right answer! Click on the buttons next to the right answers.
A. Create administrative user accounts.
B. Create shares for R/3 directories.
C. Build and load the database.
D. Install database software.
E. Verify directory access authorizations for R/3 directories.

19 - Which ADDITIONAL environment variable must be defined in the Windows NT Registry to allow communication with an SAP server system for SAP Remote Support? (Assume that the one of the SAP server systems other than the default, sapserv3, will be used.)
Type the correct answer in the field provided.

SAPSERV


20 - How is the result of the "saplicense -get" command correctly processed?
Note: There is more than one right answer! Click on the buttons next to the right answers.
A. The CUSTOMER KEY is used as a parameter for the "saplicense -install" command.
B. The CUSTOMER KEY is used by SAP to generate the SAP license.
C. It is used as a parameter for the SAPL transaction.
D. It is used as input for the R3INST program which forks a process to the saplicense process to register the license.
E. It is sent via OSS to SAP as a key for SAP Hot Package authorization.

21 - Based upon the information in this graphic, what is the full path name of the R/3 transport parameter file respective to the local disk drive where it is installed?

Sample answer syntax: F:\tmp\file.txtType the correct answer in the field provided.

F:\usr\sap\trans\bin\TPPARM

22 - Based upon the information in this graphic, what is the full path name of the directory containing the R/3 kernel respective to the local disk drive where it is installed?

Sample answer syntax: F:\tmp\file.txt
Type the correct answer in the field provided.

F:\usr\sap\D36\SYS\exe\run


23 - Based upon the information in this graphic, what is the default service name of the TCP/IP socket which the SAPGUI process would use for communications with the R/3 dispatcher process?

TCP/IP service name:

Type the correct answer in the field provided.

sapdp36

24 - Which of the following processes are started by the SAP Service Manager?
Note: There is more than one right answer! Click on the buttons next to the right answers.
A. Database instance.
B. Message Server.
C. Dispatcher.
D. SAPOSCOL.
E. Database service.

25 - Which methods are required when distributing customizing efforts, verified and released development objects, and test application data from an established R/3 development system to a quality assurance system?
Note: There is more than one right answer! Click on the buttons next to the right answers.
A. Client copy.
B. Client transport.
C. Client export and client import using the RFC interface.
D. R3INST using the Client Copy menu options.
E. Change requests.

26 - Which of the following statements about copying R/3 clients are true?
Note: There is more than one right answer! Click on the buttons next to the right answers.
A. As long as application data is not included in the client copy, then the resetting of number ranges is optional.
B. When clients are copied between R/3 systems client independent customizing is always copied.
C. When copying application data as part of a client copy the copying of customizing data is optional.
D. When clients are copied between R/3 systems the copying of client independent customizing is optional.
E. Client independent customizing is an option when copying a client within an R/3 System.

27 - Which of the following statements applying to the R/3 System copy procedure are true?
Note: There is more than one right answer! Click on the buttons next to the right answers.
A. The R/3 System release level must be identical on both the source and target systems.
B. The target system must remain in the same intranet as the source system after the copy.
C. R3INST must be used to copy the \usr\sap\ files and directories from the source to the target system.
D. The ABAP/4 Loads must be reinstalled from the delivery CD's if the database software on the target system is different from the source system.
E. The SAP System identifiers (SAPSID) of both source and target systems must be different if they will exist in the same transport environment.

28 - Which of the following statements is true of the procedures used before and after a database copy?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. All open transport requests should be released in the target system after the database copy.
B. All background jobs on the source system must be deleted before the database copy is created.
C. All entries in the operation mode timetable on the source system should be removed before the database copy.
D. The source system database is exported over a network connection to the target system and imported on the target system using native database tools.
E. The R/3 transport system must be set up in the target system.

29 - Client transport is used to establish clients in downstream systems. Limitations of client transport include:
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Repository objects are not copied and must be transported using change requests.
B. Application data cannot be copied using client transport.
C. User data cannot be copied using client transport.
D. Overwriting an existing client is not possible.
E. Client independent settings cannot be copied.

30 - Which of the following statements applying to the network load created by R/3 Client-Server components are true?
Note: There is more than one right answer! Click on the buttons next to the right answers.
A. The data volume passed between R/3 Instance hosts and an R/3 Database host is approximately 10 times greater than between R/3 Frontend hosts and Instance hosts.
B. SAPGUI communications in WAN implementations are not recommended because of the relatively high network load created by R/3 Frontend communications with R/3 Instance hosts.
C. Due to the network load created by communications between R/3 Instance hosts and R/3 Database hosts it is not recommended to install R/3 Instance hosts outside of a LAN unless a very high capacity data communication method is used.
D. R/3 Instance communications over a WAN are practical because of the relatively low network load created by data communications between R/3 Instance hosts and R/3 Database hosts.
E. Maximum data volume on a LAN is increased by approximately 10% by the network traffic flowing among R/3 instances, database servers, and user frontend servers.

31 - Which of the following statements about the R/3 Frontend software installation and setup are true.
Note: There is more than one right answer! Click on the buttons next to the right answers.
A. After installation client-PC's do not need a server connection for standard SAPGUI communications unless the file transfer facility is used.
B. In a standalone installation all of the R/3 frontend software is installed locally on the PC.
C. Components required by R/3 System applications are downloaded directly from R/3 as they are needed by the frontend machine.
D. In a client installation most of the SAP software stays on the server and the client PC contains a few programs and references to the frontend server.
E. In a server installation the network load is heaviest when the frontend software is initially started, but once started the network load is roughly twice as much as for a locally installed frontend.

32 - All text in the R/3 System which has not been fully translated must be supplemented with another language to guarantee complete functionality in a given language. Table T002C defines the logic used for supplementing languages.
If the supplementary language is not defined in table T002C, what is the default language used?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. German.
B. English.
C. The default supplementary language is specified by the zcsa/systemlanguage parameter.
D. There is no default supplementary language. The SMLT transaction will not function unless a supplementary language is specified.
E. The default supplementary language is specified by the transport system language vector parameter in the TPPARAM file.

33 - Which of the following statements pertaining to the R/3 language environment and import procedure is true?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. The language release is independent of the R/3 Release.
B. All languages are available in newly installed R/3 Systems.
C. Language and client dependent R/3 customizing tables in all R/3 clients are updated during the language import.
D. Previously installed languages will not be available after an R/3 repository upgrade unless they are imported as part of the upgrade.

34 - Which of the following statements pertaining to the SAProuter program is true?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. SAProuter enables network connections between 2 network hosts as long as they have unique Internet addresses.
B. SAProuter is hardware dependent and is only supported for Windows NT.
C. The use of SAProuter is mandatory for connection to SAP for OSS, remote consulting, and Early Watch services.
D. SAProuter passwords are generated by the R3INST program and stored in the saprouttab file.
E. The SAProuter reads the network access permissions from the saprouttab file. If saprouttab is not available all R/3 connections will be blocked.

35 - For optimal network security SAProuter must be installed together with ...
Which of the following correctly completes the above statement?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A network firewall.
Unix and Oracle.
Microsoft Windows NT Server 3.5 and SQL Server.
Routing software installed on the R/3 Central Instance host.
Routing software and a second network interface card on the R/3 Central Instance host.

36 - On an R/3 Central Instance with database using an SAP System ID of C11, SAP Instance ID 01, and with all services installed, what is the name of the Windows NT directory where the instance trace files (dev_*) are written?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
\\\SAPLOC\C11\DVEBMGS01\data
\\\SAPLOC\C11\DVEBMGS01\log
\\\SAPMNT\C11\SYS\global
\\\SAPLOC\C11\DVEBMGS01\work
The trace files are written in the database and are not written to O.S. files.

37 - Where is the R/3 syslog file stored on a Windows NT computer with all R/3 services installed, using SAP Instance ID 01, and using C11 as the database name?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
The syslog is stored in the \usr\sap\C11\SYS\global directory.
The syslog is stored in the \usr\sap\C11\DVEBMGS01\log directory.
The syslog is stored in the \usr\sap\trans\log directory.
The syslog is stored in the \usr\sap\C11\DVEBMGS01\data directory.
The syslog is stored in the database.

38 - Which of the following actions should be taken to resolve this R3INST error condition?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
Delete the shares for \usr\sap and restart R3INST.
Manually create the .sapconf file and restart R3INST.
Install the database software before installing the R/3 instance.
Correct the Windows NT domain access rights for the user.
Restart the R3INST server process.

39 - What happens if the database instance is shutdown while the R/3 instance is still active?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
The R/3 instance immediately aborts with a "database connection failed" message.
All R/3 frontend processes abort with "connection lost" messages and must be manually restarted.
The R/3 instance reaches a shared memory lock status making a cold operating system restart necessary.
The R/3 frontend processes freeze and must be killed at the operating system level before another login to R/3 is possible.
The instance waits a predetermined time and tries to reconnect to the database.

40 - After the DEFAULT.PFL file has been modified, which services must be restarted before the changes are recognized by R/3?
Note: There is more than one right answer! Click on the buttons next to the right answers.
The database and the R/3 instance services must both be restarted.
The R/3 instance must be restarted.
The saposcol service must be restarted.
The SAP_ service must be restarted.
The R/3 message server, at a minimum, must be restarted.

SAP4 Basis

1 - The ______ manages the information exchange between the SAPGUI and the work processes.
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Data Dictionary
B. Message server
C. Gateway service
D. Dispatcher

2 - What does "enqueue" and "dequeue" mean?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Puts/reads messages in the SAP message queue.
B. Locks/unlocks SAP objects during database updates.
C. Enables/disables SAP print queues.
D. Reads/writes update messages in the database.

3 - Update workprocesses may be categorized as V1 or V2. Which of the 2 types of Update workprocesses has priority?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. V1 and V2 workprocesses are handled simultaneously without priority.
B. V1 and V2 workprocesses are handled on a first-in-first-out basis.
C. Processing priority is determined by the rdisp/wp_no_vb profile parameter.
D. V1 workprocesses have priority.
E. V2 workprocesses have priority.

4 - If a user is logged on to a server group, how are dialog work processes assigned to this user?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. The user always remains assigned to the same dialog work process, regardless of server load.
B. Depending on the load of the servers, different dialog work processes of the same R/3 Instance will be assigned to the user.
C. Depending on the load of the servers, different dialog work processes of different instances will be assigned to this user.
D. It is not possible to logon to a server group.

5 - If an R/3 System has the dialog, update, enqueue, background, message, gateway and spool services installed using Instance ID 01 and connects to a database using the database system identifier C11, what is the R/3 System Instance name?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. DVBMGS01_C11
B. DVEBMGS
C. DVEBMGS01_C11
D. DVEBMS01_C11

6 - What controls R/3 System user authorizations and default id values?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. User administration at the operating system level.
B. The ABAP/4 Dictionary.
C. The Developer's Workbench.
D. The R/3 System user master record.
E. The Workbench Organizer.

7 - Which of the following is NOT true of the R/3 System Authorization concept?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Authorizations are used to administer and assign access rights to data and functions in the R/3 System.
B. Authorizations are used to set up users in the R/3 System.
C. Users defined in the R/3 System automatically receive full operating system user privileges.
D. Access to specific R/3 data can be defined using authorizations.
E. R/3 objects may have several authorizations assigned.

8 - When you create a new user, to which client may the user log on?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. All clients.
B. Only in the client where the user was created.
C. In the client where the user was created and in client 000.
D. In the client where the user was created and in client 001.

9 - When an SAP instance switches to a new operation mode which has no configured background tasks, what happens to any active background processes at the time of the switch?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. All active batch processes are aborted.
B. All batch processes are suspended and are resumed when batch services become available.
C. All active batch processes finish to completion before the operation mode is switched.
D. All active batch processes complete and the operation mode does not switch.

10 - Which of the following is NOT true of event controlled background processing in R/3?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. An event can be triggered from within R/3 by ABAP/4 programs.
B. An event in R/3 can be triggered from outside of the R/3 System by using the operating system level program, sapevt.
C. It is not necessary for the R/3 System to be active for events to be triggered.
D. Events are used internally by the R/3 System and cannot be raised by users.
E. The sapevt program can start the event scheduler in R/3 which checks the job queue for scheduled jobs waiting for this event and then starts these jobs.

11 - What are 2 ways to start an ABAP/4 program?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. In online or in offline mode.
B. In online or in background mode.
C. As local or as remote programs.
D. ABAP/4 programs can only be started online.
E. As a client or as a server program.

12 - What is the name of the program at the operating system level which is used when an ABAP/4 program is used to trigger an external program?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. disp+work
B. gwrd
C. sapevt
D. sapxpg
E. saposcol

13 - With which operating system level program do external programs communicate when triggering R/3 System events?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. disp+work
B. gwrd
C. sapevt
D. sapxpg
E. saposcol

14 - In an R/3 transport environment the transport layer defines the transport route between the integration system and which other system?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Delivery system
B. Consolidation system
C. Customizing system
D. Demo system
E. Database management system

15 - Which of the following is NOT true of a quality assurance system in a threesystem landscape?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Original objects cannot be transported to a quality assurance system.
B. Another name for a quality assurance system is "Consolidation" system.
C. The quality assurance system is where the final verification and testing of all implementation efforts occurs.
D. Development errors should be corrected in the quality assurance system and transported to the development system.
E. Only repairs are possible in the quality assurance system. All corrections must be transported from the development system.

16 - Transaction SE06 provides functions for configuring the Workbench Organizer (WBO) in the SAP System. Which of the following is NOT performed by the SE06 transaction?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Automatic generation of transport system table entries for complex system landscapes.
B. Generate a standard WBO configuration.
C. Maintain the WBO configuration.
D. Displays the current WBO configuration.
E. Sets the system change option.

17 - Which of the following SAP tables defines the transport layer for distributing the development class objects among the systems in a system landscape?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. TSYST
B. TASYS
C. DEVL
D. TDEVC
E. TWSYS

18 - Which of the following statements regarding a single system landscape is NOT true?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Maintenance level and release upgrades may be applied.
B. Only local transports may be created.
C. A single-system landscape is suitable for demonstrations and training.
D. A single system landscape is recommended for production use as long as all development remains in client 001.
E. The Workbench Organizer (WBO) configuration of a single system landscape may be changed to define the system as a member of a multi-system landscape when subsequent systems are installed.

19 - Which of the following statements about the R/3 transport directory is correct?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. The transport directory physical location is dependent upon which database is being used.
B. SAP recommends that a separate transport directory be local on each R/3 System.
C. The transport directory may not be shared among R/3 Systems because it will cause database and filesystem inconsistencies.
D. The use of a common transport directory is recommended by SAP because it facilitates transport functionality among systems in a multi-system landscape.

20 - Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Clients can be copied within a single R/3 System.
B. Clients can be copied between R/3 Systems of the same release.
C. User master records can be copied between clients.
D. The Client Copy tools support the copying of printer definitions between clients.

21 - What is the correct System Change Option for a quality assurance system?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Only original objects.
B. All customer objects.
C. All objects.
D. Objects cannot be changed.

22 - What is the recommended System Change Option for a production system?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Only original objects.
B. All customer objects.
C. All objects.
D. Objects cannot be changed.

23 - Which of the following is true of creating new clients within an R/3 System?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Customizing and repository objects from a source client are copied to the new client using the client copy tool.
B. The client transport tool can be used to simultaneously transfer multiple SAP clients from one R/3 System to another in a single action.
C. Log files indicating the success of a new client creation are stored in the home directory of the user initiating the copy.
D. Profiles define the types of client data to be copied.
E. Remote client copies generate large data files at the operating system level.

24 - What is the minimum number of Dialog Work Processes in an SAP Instance?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Central Instance: 0 , Dialog Instance: 0
B. Central Instance: 0 , Dialog Instance: 1
C. Central Instance: 2 , Dialog Instance: 1
D. Central Instance: 2 , Dialog Instance: 2

25 - Which of the following is true of operation modes in R/3?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Productive operation modes may only be switched manually.
B. Test operation modes may be switched manually or periodically.
C. Operation modes can be used to startup/shutdown SAP instances.
D. Operation modes can be scheduled for specific dates and times.
E. Operation modes must be defined as either productive, test or demo.

26 - Which transaction may be used to list all users who are logged on to all the R/3 instances in an SAP System group?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. RZ04
B. SE38
C. AL08
D. SM21

27 - What is the user name and password for the R/3 System administrator in a newly installed system (Clients 000 and 001)?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. User name: SAP*, password: ddic
B. User name: SAP*, password: init
C. User name: SAP*, password: 06071992
D. User name: SAP*, password: manager
E. User name: SAP*, password: 19920706

28 - What is the user name and password for the R/3 System data dictionary administrator in a newly installed system (Clients 000 and 001)?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. User name: SAP*, password: ddic
B. User name: DDIC, password: init
C. User name: DDIC, password: manager
D. User name: DDIC, password: 06071992
E. User name: DDIC, password: 19920706

29 - Which of the following is true in terms of configuring the R/3 Enqueue Service?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Each R/3 instance may have a locally running enqueue service.
B. The host where the enqueue service runs is defined in the startup profile.
C. There must be exactly 1 enqueue service per SAP System.
D. The enqueue service must be installed on the R/3 Central instance.

30 - Which table must be empty after an SAP Upgrade has finished?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. TBATG
B. TASYS
C. TSYST
D. TADIR
E. TXCOM

31 - After an ABAP/4 Dictionary object has been modified, what must be done before it is usable by application programs?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. It must be transported to all the other R/3 hosts.
B. It must be copied to all other R/3 clients.
C. It must be activated.
D. The R/3 instance must be restarted to flag the program's availability.

32 - What is the sequence that should be used when upgrading R/3 Systems in a multi-system landscape environment?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. The systems should be upgraded in the sequence defined in the transport path.
B. All the systems should be upgraded simultaneously to save time.
C. The production system should be upgraded first.
D. The sequence depends upon the database backup implementation timetable.
E. The upgrade sequence is dependent upon the project managers availability.


33 - Which of the following is NOT a factor in R/3 upgrade planning strategy?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Determine the sequence of upgrading all systems in the system group.
B. System downtime for data backups before and after the upgrade.
C. Duration of the upgrade.
D. Whether or not all SAP prerequisites can be met prior to the upgrade.
E. Whether or not all of the R/3 user frontend PC's use Microsoft Windows 95 or Windows for Workgroups.

34 - Which of the following is NOT true concerning the SPDD transaction?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. ABAP/4 Dictionary objects are adjusted during an upgrade using the SPDD transaction.
B. Transaction SPDD should be executed as soon as the R3up upgrade control program indicates.
C. The objects affected by SPDD adjustments are domains, data elements, and tables.
D. SPDD adjustments are not necessary unless changes have been made to the SAP standard ABAP/4 Dictionary objects. Objects in the customer name range are not processed.
E. All SPDD adjustments should be done by the R/3 System user DDIC and not by a normal user.

35 - Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning the SPAU transaction?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. After completion of an upgrade, you have a limited time period for executing transaction SPAU without needing an SSCR key for adjusted objects.
B. Adjustment of ABAP/4 Repository objects is carried out with the help of the SPAU transaction.
C. The R3up program instructs the user to start SPAU at the end of an upgrade.
D. Objects adjusted by SPAU should be saved to a single change request for transport to subsequent systems.
E. Adjustment of ABAP/4 Dictionary objects (domains, data elements, and tables) is done using the SPAU transaction.

36 - To perform any modification in an R/3 System (release 3.0), the modification must be registered with the SAP Software Change Registration (SSCR).
Which of the following DOES NOT apply to SSCR?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Developers must be registered in the SAP OSS System.
B. All modifications must be registered in the OSS System.
C. The customer's R/3 System must have a correctly installed SAP license.
D. The customer must fax an object modification request to SAP.
E. The R/3 installation number for the system must be valid.

37 - Which of the following is NOT true of the SAP Enhancement Concept?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. It allows customers to add their own functionality to SAP standard business applications.
B. Program and menu exits are a fundamental component of the Enhancement Concept.
C. SAP has created user exits for specific programs, screens, fields and menus within the standard R/3 applications.
D. Customers may create their own exits without notifying SAP because the user exits lie in the customer name range.
E. Exits do not exist for all programs, screens and menues.

38 - Does an SAP owned object have to be assigned to a customer development class in order to be modified?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Yes. A modification should be assigned to a customer development class. This eliminates the need for a modification adjustment during the upgrade process.
B. No. The object belongs to SAP and is considered standard functionality. The development class provides the object with its needed ownership and must not change.
C. Yes. An automatic pop-up window forces a developer to assign a changed SAP object to a new development class.
D. It does not matter because of the flexibility of the system parameter option assignment scheme.
E. No. It will be assigned to a new development class automatically.

39 - At which stage in the upgrade process is it necessary to perform an ABAP/4 Dictionary adjustment?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Immediately following the import of the new ABAP/4 Dictionary.
B. After running the PREPARE script and reviewing the suggestions in the CHECK.log file.
C. This step is performed automatically by ADJUSTIMP and no user interaction is necessary.
D. As part of the post-upgrade procedure.
E. Within 14 days after an upgrade is finished.

40 - A repository switch upgrade of an R/3 System involves:
Note: There is more than one right answer! Click on the buttons next to the right answers.
A. Comparing all modifications with the new SAP standard.
B. Replacing the current customer repository with the new SAP standard.
C. System downtime from the start of the upgrade process.
D. Merging the customer's current SAP repository with the new SAP standard.
E. Adjusting all customer developed objects with new and improved program logic.

41 - Which of the following statements is NOT true of how customers can avoid making modifications to SAP standard objects?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Make use of enhancement concepts such as program exits and menu exits.
B. Take advantage of the table append technology when changing table definitions.
C. Use Hot Packages to perform program corrections rather than keying in coding changes manually.
D. Create their own repository objects in order to provide additional functionality.
E. Modify their business processes so that the standard SAP software will fulfill all of their requirements.

42 - Which of the following is NOT true concerning R/3 Upgrade Notes?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Reading R/3 Notes is absolutely essential before beginning an R/3 upgrade.
B. Notes are available from the SAP Online Service System (OSS) or may be requested by fax from SAP.
C. Notes are optional documents which are only used for marketing information and contain no useful information for upgrades.
D. Notes are updated continually as new upgrade information becomes known. They should be downloaded prior to each upgrade.
E. Notes may contain references to other R/3 Notes which may also need to be referenced.

43 - Which of the following is NOT true of Hot Packages?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Hot Packages provide program error corrections as part of the SAP Online Correction Services.
B. Hot Packages are bundles of corrections in the ABAP/4 Repository of the R/3 Software.
C. Each Hot Package is linked to R/3 Notes where the corrected program errors are explained.
D. Hot Packages should be imported into an R/3 System as soon as they are available.
E. Hot Packages are only for demonstration purposes and as optional system add-ons and will not have any effect on system operations.

44 - Which of the following statements is true of all changes made to SAP owned objects?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Changes must not be registered with SAP Software Change Registration (SSCR).
B. Changes are saved to tasks of type "SAP".
C. Changes can only be transported if the appropriate entries exist in tables TXCOM and T000.
D. Changes will require adjustment during future system upgrades.
E. Changes will never require adjustment during future system upgrades.

45 - What type of table is of type 'TRANSP'?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. A table used for Transporting data between SAP systems.
B. A table which is reproduced 1:1 in the database.
C. A table which is invisible for native SQL.
D. A table which is accessible for all SAP clients.

46 - Which of the following are not ABAP/4 Repository objects?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Tables
B. Matchcodes
C. Domains
D. Structures
E. System messages

47 - Repository objects are developed and maintained using the:
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Customizing Organizer
B. ABAP/4 Development Workbench
C. Data Modeler
D. Screen Painter
E. Business Engineering Workbench

48 - Structures and their attributes which do not have records in the database are what kind of tables?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Cluster tables
B. Pool tables
C. Internal tables
D. External tables

49 - In terms of the ABAP/4 Development Workbench, what is a variant?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Program selection criteria which can be stored for later use with the same report.
B. A report which was developed by modifying another report.
C. A report which can be used in different R/3 clients.
D. The R/3 release being used during report creation.

50 - Which of the following is true in terms of configuring the R/3 Spool Service?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Each R/3 instance must have a locally defined spool service.
B. Each R/3 instance may have a locally defined spool service.
C. There must be exactly 1 spool service per SAP System.
D. The spool service must be installed on the central R/3 instance.

51 - Which of the following is true in terms of configuring the R/3 Message Service?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Each R/3 instance must have a locally running message service.
B. The host where the message service runs is defined in the database parameter profile.
C. There must be exactly 1 message service per SAP System.
D. The message service must run on the R/3 Central Instance.

52 - In a networked R/3 System environment consisting of 1 database host and 1 or more Application Servers, 1 Application Server functions as the Update work process server.
Which parameter file contains, by SAP convention, the rdisp/vbname profile parameter?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. The Start profile of the Central Instance host.
B. The global Default profile of the Central Instance host.
C. The Instance profile of the Central Instance host.
D. The SAPGUI parameter profile of one of the Dialog Instance hosts.
E. The database configuration parameter file.

53 - Per SAP convention, which R/3 System profile contains the rdisp/wp_no_vb profile parameter?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. The Start profile.
B. The Global Default profile.
C. The Instance profile.
D. The SAPGUI parameter profile.
E. The database configuration parameter file.

54 - Which traces can be switched on/off without restarting the Instance?
Note: There is more than one right answer! Click on the buttons next to the right answers.
A. ABAP/4 Trace
B. SQL Trace
C. SYSLOG Trace
D. Dispatcher Trace

55 - Which R/3 System transaction is used to view the system log?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. SP01
B. SM21
C. SM37
D. SPAD

56 - Which of the following statements is true for when the processing of an Update task is interrupted?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. The complete R/3 System halts until the problem situation is resolved
B. Interruption of V1 or V2 update tasks will cause a rollback of the already executed database changes, a log entry is made in the VBLOG, and no further V1 or V2 updates will be made until the problem is resolved. An error message is sent to the user.
C. Interruption of V1 tasks will cause a rollback of the already executed database changes, a log entry is made in the VBLOG, and no further V1 or V2 updates will be made until the problem is resolved. An error message is sent to the user.
D. Interruption of V2 tasks will cause a rollback of the already executed database changes, a log entry is made in the VBLOG, and no further V1 or V2 updates will be made until the problem is resolved. An error message is sent to the user.
E. Interruption of V2 tasks will cause a rollback of the already executed database changes, a log entry is made in the VBLOG, and other V1 and V2 updates may continue to be made. An error message is sent to the user.

57 - How does setting the parameter rdisp/TRACE to trace level 2 change the R/3 SYSLOG?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. The rdisp/TRACE output is not listed in the SYSLOG and so has no effect.
B. The SYSLOG contains errors, warnings and informational messages depending on the trace level.
C. Database error logging is enabled but the R/3 SYSLOG is not affected.
D. Depending on the Trace level, SYSLOG messages become more or less detailed.

58 - What happens when the SYSLOG file becomes full?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. The system halts and sends an error message.
B. The SYSLOG switches and logging continues.
C. The SYSLOG file is overwritten restarting with block 0.
D. No more error messages will be logged.

59 - How should an update-intensive table be buffered?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. 100%
B. generic
C. partial
D. not at all

60 - What can be concluded from the values shown in areas 1 and 2 of this SAP System Process Overview?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Although the workload is equally distributed, there is a performance bottleneck because of the excessive R/3 System paging and rolling.
B. We are encountering an I/O bottleneck. The system needs excessive CPU resources to perform I/O operations.
C. The system is using all the available resources, however there is no serious performance problem.

61 - The CPU metrics, %user, %system, and %idle, are global CPU metrics. The %user expresses the percentage of user processes in user mode, the %system expresses the percentage of processes in kernel mode (system calls), and %idle expresses the percentage of non-CPU activity.

A high %system CPU utilization value as shown in this transaction ST06 screen always expresses system resource problems.

Which of the following is a symptom of high %system CPU utilization?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Memory management
B. I/O management
C. Heavy IPC system call rate, process creation, heavy network traffic

62 - Based upon the information in the indicated area of this Operating System Performance Monitor screen (ST06), what does the Load Average value express?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. It is a metric that depends on the percentage of the CPU, I/O and LAN resources being utilized.
B. The 1, 5, and 15 minute averages of the count of processes in the run queue of the operating system.
C. The load average value shows the 1, 5, 15 minute averages of the system swapping activity.
D. The load average value shows the 1, 5, 15 minute averages of the operating system uptime.

63 - Which of the following statements describes the average response time as indicated in this Workload Analysis screen?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Average response time is equal to or less than the sum of CPU time, plus wait time, plus load time, plus database request time.
B. Average response time is equal to or less than the CPU time.
C. Average response time is equal to the sum of CPU time, plus wait time, plus load time, plus database request time, plus time in the frontend process.

64 - Based upon the information in the indicated area of the Workload Analysis screen, which of the following statements is true about Average Wait Time?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Average Wait Time is normally 80% of the average response time.
B. Average Wait Time is normally 50% of the average response time.
C. Average Wait Time is normally less than 5% of the average response time.

65 - This Workload Analysis screen shows an example of poor response time caused from a high average wait time. Which of the following statements explains why the average wait time could be so high?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. R/3 programs are waiting a long time to get free workprocesses because system resources are limited.
B. R/3 programs are staying a long time inside of workprocesses because they are waiting for internal R/3 System events.
C. R/3 programs are waiting a long time to get free workprocesses because the R/3 programs are running with low priorities.

66 - Based upon the information indicated in area 1 and 2 of this Operating System Monitor screen, which of the following is true?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. System CPU resources are not sufficient. A wait situation is possible when many processes are requesting CPU resources.
B. CPU resources are adequate. No performance problems will be encountered.
C. CPU resources are adequate, but performance problems will be encountered because of wait situations sharing the resources.

67 - Based upon the information in areas 1 - 3 of this R/3 System Monitoring screen, which of the following statements is true?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. The "load" program consumes much of the available CPU resources.
B. The "load" program consumes much of the available I/O resources.
C. The "load" program cannot be considered a performance degradation factor.

68 - This performance Analysis screen shows a case of excessive object swapping even though there is apparently enough free space in the Program Buffer.

Based upon the information indicated, which of the following statements explains why there is so much swapping?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
The indication of object swapping is false and does not express the current situation.
There is enough free space but not enough directory entries.
The available free space is fragmented and the fragments are not big enough to hold the new programs.

69 - Which of the following is NOT true of the SAProuter?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
The SAProuter is an application level gateway.
The SAProuter acts as a secure gateway into and out of a customer's SAP environment.
SAProuter will only accept incoming data if it conforms to SAP's own internal protocol and if it is coming in over a predefined port number from a predefined internet address.
SAProuter installation is mandatory for connection to the SAP Online Service System (OSS).
SAProuter installation is not mandatory for connection to the SAP Online Service System (OSS).

70 - For complete network security, SAProuter must be installed together with:
Click on the button next to the right answer.
Microsoft Windows NT
UNIX
A hardware router.
SAProuter offers complete network security without additional hardware investment.
A Worldwide Web implementation strategy.

71 - Name the R/3 System transaction used for printing and spool administration.
Click on the button next to the right answer.
SM50
SM51
SPAD
SP01
SM37

72 - Printing in the R/3 System is handled by the TemSe (storage for Temporary Sequential data) and spool components. Which of the following is NOT true:
Click on the button next to the right answer.
The TemSe only stores the output request data.
The instance parameter, rspo/store_location, determines whether TemSe data is stored in the database or in an operating system file.
TemSe data stored in an operating system file must be backed-up separately from the database data.
TemSe data stored in the database can be accessed faster by the host operating system spooler than when it is stored in a file.
TemSe data stored in the database is backed-up when regular database backups are done.

73 - Which of the R/3 spool device authorization templates schould be used for creating an authorization profile with a defined set of spool output devices?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
S_SPO_DEV_CUST
S_SCRP_TALL
S_SPO_DEV_AL
S_SPO_ACT
S_SPO_ALL

74 - Which of the following does NOT apply to time-critical printing?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
Use dedicated application servers with their own spool work process.
Print as much as possible over a remote connection.
Limit device authorization for critical printer to selected users.
Implement high availability practices for the host spool system.
Use an appropriate naming convention for time-critical printers.

75 - Which of the following does NOT apply to printing in a high-security environment?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
Use a dedicated printer assigned to a specific R/3 application server with an active spool work process.
Assign selected users or user groups exclusive access to a printer and allow no authorizations for that printer to other users.
Physically secure the printer in a room with controlled access.
Modify the rspo/store_location parameter so that print data will be stored in an operating system file rather than in the database.
Activate "Delete upon Completion" in the R/3 spool administration to make spool data inaccessible to users through the output controller.
76 - What is the R/3 Workbench Organizer used for?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
To send patches from SAP to the customers.
To detect and correct errors in the SAP data transfer modules.
To record the creation and modification of repository objects.
It is only used when upgrading R/3 Systems.

77 - When must the Workbench Organizer be configured?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
After all Central and Dialog instance installations.
Whenever a new R/3 Central Instance with database is installed.
Immediately after a database software version update.
After all R/3 release level upgrades but not after correction level upgrades.

78 - Which R/3 facility is used to release a correction/repair?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
Workbench Organizer
Transaction SE06
Development Workbench
Customizing Organizer

79 - What is configured in the transport parameter file?
Note: There is more than one right answer! Click on the buttons next to the right answers.
The transport parameters for all R/3 central and dialog instances.
The database host for each of the systems in the system landscape.
The R/3 Dialog Instance startup parameters.
The location of the transport directory.

80 - If you repair an SAP object, what will happen if you specifiy it as a "Local Private Object"?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
The repair cannot be transported.
The repair may be downloaded to become an object accessible at the native database level.
The repair will only be active for the user who creates the repair.
The "Local Private Object" option will be used when the repair is transported.

SAP BDC

1. What is full form of BDC Session?
Batch Data Communication Session.

2. What are the steps in a BDC session?
The first step in a BDC session is to identify the screens of the transaction that the program will process. Next step is to write a program to build the BDC table that will be used to submit the data to SAP. The final step is to submit the BDC table to the system in the batch mode or as a single transaction by the CALL TRANSACTION command.

3. How do you find the information on the current screen?
The information on the current screen can be found by SYSTEM à STATUS command from any menu.

4. How do you save data in BDC tables?
The data in BDC tables is saved by using the field name ‘BDC_OKCODE’ and field value of ‘/11’.

5. What is the last entry in all BDC tables?
In all BDC tables the last entry is to save the data by using the field name BDC_OKCODE and a field value of ‘/11’.

6. What is a multiple line field?
A multiple line field is a special kind of field which allows the user to enter multiple lines of data into it.

7. How do you populate data into a multiple line field?
To populate data into a multiple line field, an index is added to the field name to indicate which line is to be populated by the BDC session (Line index).

8. Write the BDC table structure.
BDC table structure

FIELD TYPE DESCRIPTION
Program CHAR (8) Program name of transaction.
DynPro CHAR (4) Screen number of transaction.
DynBegin CHAR (1) Indicator for new screen.
Fnam CHAR (35) Name of database field from screen.
Fval CHAR (80) Value to submit to field.

9. Does the CALL TRANSACTION method allow multiple transactions to be processed by SAP?
No. The CALL TRANSACTION method allows only a single transaction to be processed by SAP.
10. Does the BDC-INSERT function allow multiple transactions to be processed by SAP?
Yes.
11. What is the syntax for ‘CALL TRANSACTION’?
CALL TRANSACTION trans [ using bdctab MODE mode ].
Three possible entries are there for MODE.
A - Show all screens.
E - Show only screens with errors.
N - Show no screens.

SAP Transactions

What is a transaction?
- A transaction is dialog program that change data objects in a consistant way.

What are the requirements a dialog program must fulfill?
A dialog program must fulfil the following requirements
- a user friendly user interface.
- Format and consistancey checks for the data entered by the user.
- Easy correction of input errors.
- Access to data by storing it in the data bases.

3.What are the basic components of dialog program?
- Screens (Dynpros)
- Each dialog in an SAP system is controlled by dynpros.A dynpros consists of a screen
And its flow logic and controls exactly one dialog step.
- ABAP/4 module Pool.
Each dynpro refers to exactly one ABAP/4 dialog program .Such a dialog program is also called a module pool ,since it consists of interactive modules.

4.What is PBO and PAI events?
PBO- Process Before Output-It determines the flow logic before displaying the screen.
PAI-Process After Input-It determines the flowlogic after the display of the screen and after receiving inputs from the User.

5. What is dynpro?What are its components ?
- A dynpro (Dynamic Program) consists of a screen and its flow logic and controls exactly one dialog steps.
- The different components of the dynpro are :
Flow Logic: calls of the ABAP/4 modules for a screen .
Screen layout:Positions of the text ,fields,pushbuttons and so on for a screen
Screen Attributes:Number of the screen,number of the subsequent screen,and others
Fields attributes :Definition of the attributes of the individual fields on a screen.

6. What is a ABAP/4 module pool?
-Each dynpro refers to exactly one ABAP/4 dialog program.Such a dialog program is also called
a module pool ,since it consists on interactive modules.

7..Can we use WRITE statements in screen fields?if not how is data transferred from field data to screen fields?
-We cannot write field data to the screen using the WRITE statement.The system instead transfers data by comparing screen fields names with ABAP/4 variable names.If both names are the same,it
transfers screen fields values to ABAP/4 programs fields and Vice Versa.This happens immediately after displaying the screen.

8.Can we use flow logic control key words in ABAP/4 and vice-versa?
- The flow control of a dynpro consists os a few statements that syntactically ressemble ABAP/4 statements .However ,We cannot use flow control keywords in ABAP/4 and vice-versa.

9.What is GUI status? How to create /Edit GUI status?
-A GUI status is a subset of the interface elements used for a certain screen.The status comprises
those elements that are currently needed by the transaction .The GUI status for a transaction may be composed of the following elements:
-Title bar.
-Mneu bar.
-Application tool bar
-Push buttons.

To create and edit GUI status and GUI title,we use the Menu Painter.

10. How does the interection between the Dynpro and the ABAP/4 Modules takes place?
-A transaction is a collection os screens and ABAP/4 routines ,controlled and executed by a Dialog processor.The Dilaog processor processes screen after the screen ,thereby triggering the appropriate
ABAP/4 processing of each screen .For each screen,the system executes the flow logic that contains the corresponding ABAP/4 processing.The controls passes from screen flow logic to ABAP/4 code and back.

11. How does the Dialog handle user requests?
- when an action is performed ,the system triggers the PROCESS AFTER INPUT event.The data passed includes field screen data data entered by the user and a function code. A functioncode is a technical name that has been allocated in a screen Painter or Menu Painter to a meny entry,a push button,the ENTER key or a function Key of a screen.An internal work field(ok-code)in the PAI module evaluates the function code,and the appropriate action is taken.


What is to be defined for a push button fields in the screen attributes?
- A function code has to be defined in the screen attributes for the push buttons in a screen.

How are the function code handles in Flow Logic?
- When the User selects a function in a transaction ,the system copies the function code into a specially designated work field called OK_CODE.This field is Global in ABAP/4 Module Pool.The OK_CODE can then be evaluated in the corresponding PAI module. The function code is always passed in Exactly the same way , regardless of Whether it comes from a screen’s pushbutton,a menu
option ,function key or other GUI element.

14.What controls the screen flow?
- The SET SCREEN and LEAVE SCREEN statements controls screen flow.



The Function code currently active is ascertained by what Variable?
- The function code currently active in a Program can be ascertained from the SY-UCOMM Variable.

The function code currently active is ascertained by what variable ?
- By SY-UCOMM Variable.


What are the “field” and “chain” Statements?
- The FIELD and CHAIN flow logic statements let you Program Your own checks.FIELD and CHAIN tell the system Which fields you are checking and Whether the System should Perform Checks in the flow logic or call an ABAP/4 Module.

What is an “on input filed” statements?
- ON INPUT
The ABAP/4 module is called only if a field contains the Value other than the initial Value.This initial Value is determined by the filed’s Dta Type: blanks for character Fields
,Zeroes for numerics. If the user changes the Fields Value back t o its initial value,ON INPUT does not trigger a call.


What is an “on request Field” statement?
- ON REQUEST
The ABAP/4 Module is called only if the user has entered the value in the field value since the last screen display .The Value counts as changed Even if the User simply types in the value that was already there .In general ,the ON REQUEST condition is triggered through any
Form of” MANUAL INPUT’.

What is an on”*-input filed” statement?
ON *-INPUT
- The ABAP/4 module is called if the user has entered the “*” in the first character of the field, and the field has the attribute *-entry in the screen Painter.You can use this option in Exceptionla cases where you want to check only fields with certain Kinds of Input.


What are conditional chain statement?
ON CHAIN-INPUT similar to ON INPUT.
The ABAP/4 module is called if any one of the fields in the chain contains a value other than its initial value(blank or nulls).
ON CHAIN-REQUEST
This condition functions just like ON REQUEST, but the ABAP/4 module is called if any one of the fields in the chain changes value.

What is “at exit-command:?
The flowlogic Keyword at EXIT-COMMAND is a special addition to the MODULE statement in the Flow Logic .AT EXIT-COMMAND lets you call a module before the system executes the automatic fields checks.

Which Function type has to be used for using “at exit-command” ?
- To Use AT EXIT – COMMAND ,We must assign a function Type “E” to the relevant function in the MENU Painter OR Screen Painter .

What are the different message types available in the ABAP/4 ?
- There are 5 types of message types available.
- E: ERROR
- W-WARNING
- I –INFORMATION
- A-ABNORMAL TERMINATION.
- S-SUCCESS

Of the two “ next screen “ attributes the attributes that has more priority is -------------------.
Dynamic.


Navigation to a subsequent screen can be specified statically/dynamically .(TRUE/FALSE).
TRUE.


Dynamic screen sequence for a screen can be set using ------------- and ----------------- commands

Set Screen, Call screen.

27. The commands through Which an ABAP/4 Module can “branch to “ or “call” the next screen are

1.------------,2--------------,3---------------,4------------.

- Set screen,Call screen ,Leave screen, Leave to screen .


28. What is difference between SET SCREEN and CALL SCREEN ?

- With SET SCREEN the current screen simply specifies the next screen in the chain , control branches to this next screen as sonn as th e current screen has been processed .Return from next screen to current screen is not automatic .It does not interrupt processing of the current screen.If we want to branch to the next screen without finishing the current one ,use LEAVE SCREEN.

- With CALL SCREEN , the current (calling) chain is suspended , and a next screen (screen chain) is called .The called can then return to the suspended chain with the statement LEAVE SCREEN TO SCREEN 0 .Sometime we might want to let an user call a pop up screen from the main application screen to let him enter secondary information.After they have completed their enteries, the users should be able to close the popup and return directly to the place where they left off in the main screen.Here comes CALL SCREEN into picture .This statement lets us insert such a sequence intp the current one.

29. Can we specify the next screen number with a variable (*Yes/No)?

- Yes

30. The field SY-DYNR refers to--------------

Number of the current screen.

31. What is dialog Module?
- A dialog Module is a callable sequence of screens that does not belong to a particular transaction.Dialog modules have their module pools , and can be called by any transaction.

32. The Syntex used to call a screen as dialog box (pop up)is---------

CALL SCREEN
STARTING AT
ENDING AT

33. What is “call mode”?
- In the ABAP/4 WORLD each stackable sequence of screens is a “call mode”, This is IMP because of the way u return from the given sequence .To terminate a call mode and return to a suspended chain set the “next screen” to 0 and leave to it:
LEAVE TO SCREEN 0 or (SET SCREEN 0 and LEAVE SCREEN) .When u return to the suspended chain execution resumes with the statement directly following the original CALL SCREEN statement.The original sequence of screens in a transaction (that is , without having stacked any additional call modes),you returned from the transaction altogether.


34. The max number of calling modes stacked at one time is?
- NINE

35. What is LUW or Data base Transaction ?

- A “LUW”(logical unit of work) is the span of time during which any database updates must be performed in an “all or nothing” manner .Either they are all performed (committed),or they are all thrown away (rolled back).In the ABAP/4 world , LUWs and
- Transactions can have several meanings:

LUW (or “database LUW” or “database transaction”)

This is the set of updates terminated by a database commit. A LUW lasts ,at most , from one screen change to the next (because the SAP system triggers database commits automatically at every screen change).

36. What is SAP LUW or Update Transaction?
Update transaction (or “SAP LUW”)
This is a set of updates terminated by an ABAP/4 commit. A SAP LUW may last much longer than a database LUW, since most update processing extends over multiple transaction screens. The programmer terminates an update transaction by issuing a COMMIT WORK statement.

37. What happens if only one of the commands SET SCREEN and LEAVE SCREEN is used without using the other?
If we use SET SCREEN without LEAVE SCREEN, the program finishes processing for the current screen before branching to . If we use LEAVE SCREEN without a SET SCREEN before it, the current screen process will be terminated and branch directly to the screen specified as the default next-screen in the screen attributes.

38. What is the significance of the screen number ‘0’?
In “calling mode”, the special screen number 0 (LEAVE TO SCREEN 0) causes the system to jump back to the previous call level. That is, if you have called a screen sequence with CALL SCREEN leaving to screen 0 terminates the sequence and returns to the calling screen. If you have not called a screen sequence, LEAVE TO SCREEN 0 terminates the transaction.

39. What does the ‘SUPPRESS DIALOG’ do?
Suppressing of entire screens is possible with this command. This command allows us to perform screen processing “in the background”. Suppresing screens is useful when we are branching to list-mode from a transaction dialog step.

40. What is the significance of the memory table ‘SCREEN’?
At runtime, attributes for each screen field are stored in the memory table called ‘SCREEN’. We need not declare this table in our program. The system maintains the table for us internally and updates it with every screen change.

41. What are the fields in the memory table ‘SCREEN’?
Name Length Description

NAME 30 Name of the screen field
GROUP1 3 Field belongs to field group 1
GROUP2 3 Field belongs to field group 2
GROUP3 3 Field belongs to field group 3
GROUP4 3 Field belongs to field group4
ACTIVE 1 Field is visible and ready for input.
REQUIRED 1 Field input is mandatory.
INPUT 1 Field is ready for input.
OUTPUT 1 Field is display only.
INTENSIFIED 1 Field is highlighted
INVISIBLE 1 Field is suppressed.
LENGTH 1 Field output length is reduced.
DISPLAY_3D 1 Field is displayed with 3D frames.
VALUE_HELP 1 Field is displayed with value help.

42. Why grouping of fields is required? What is the max no of modification groups for each field?
If the same attribute need to be changed for several fields at the same time these fields can be grouped together. We can specify up to four modification groups for each field.

43. What are the attributes of a field that can be activated or deactivated during runtime?
Input, Output, Mandatory, Active, Highlighted, Invisible.

44. What is a screen group? How it is useful?
Screen group is a field in the Screen Attributes of a screen. Here we can define a string of up to four characters which is available at the screen runtime in the SY-DNGR field. Rather than maintaining field selection separately for each screen of a program, we can combine logically associated screens together in a screen group.

45. What is a Subscreen? How can we use a Subscreen?
A subscreen is an independent screen that is displayed in a n area of another (“main”) screen. To use a subscreen we must call it in the flow logic (both PBO and PAI) of the main screen. The CALL SUBSCREEN stratement tells the system to execute the PBO and PAI events for the subscreen as part of the PBO or PAI events of the main screen. The flow logic of your main program should look as follows:
PROCESS BEFORE OUTPUT.
CALL SUBSCREEN INCLUDING ‘’ ’’.
PROCESS AFTER INPUT.
CALL SUBSCREEN .
Area is the name of the subscreen area you defined in your main screen. This name can have up to ten characters. Program is the name of the program to which the subscreen belongs and screen is the subscreen’s number.

46. What are the restrictions on Subscreens?
Subscreens have several restrictions. They cannot:
· Set their own GUI status
· Have a named OK code
· Call another screen
· Contain an AT EXIT-COMMAND module
· Support positioning of the cursor.

47. How can we use / display table in a screen?
ABAP/4 offers two mechanisms for displaying and using table data in a screen. These mechanisms are TABLE CONTROLS and STEP LOOPS.

48. What are the differences between TABLE CONTROLS and STEP LOOPS?
TABLE CONTROLS are simply enhanced STEP LOOPS that display with the look and feel of a table widget in a desktop application. But from a programming standpoint, TABLE CONTROLS and STEP LOOPS are almost exactly the same. One major difference between STEP LOOPS and TABLE CONTROLS is in STEP LOOPS their table rows can span more than one time on the screen. By contrast the rows in a TABLE CONTROLS are always single lines, but can be very long. (Table control rows are scrollable). The structure of table control is different from step loops. A step loop, as a screen object, is simply a series of field rows that appear as a repeating block. A table control, as a screen object consists of: I) table fields (displayed in the screen ) ii) a control structure that governs the table display and what the user can do with it.

49. What are the dynapro keywords?
FIELD, MODULE, SELECT, VALUES and CHAIN are the dynapro keywords.

50. Why do we need to code a LOOP statement in both the PBO and PAI events for each table in the screen?
We need to code a LOOP statement in both PBO and PAI events for each table in the screen. This is because the LOOP statement causes the screen fields to be copied back and forth between the ABAP/4 program and the screen field. For this reason, at least an empty LOOP….ENDLOOP must be there.

51. The field SY-STEPL refers to the index of the screen table row that is currently being processed. The system variable SY-stepl only has a meaning within the confines of LOOP….ENDLOOP processing. Outside the loop, it has no valid value.

52. How can we declare a table control in the ABAP/4 program?

Using the syntax controls < table > type tableview using screen < scr >.

53. Differentiate between static and dynamic step loops.
Step loops fall into two classes: Static and Dynamic. Static step loops have a fixed size that cannot be changed at runtime. Dynamic step loops are variable in size. If the user re-sizes the window the system automatically increases or decreases the number of step loop blocks displayed. In any given screen you can define any number of static step loops but only a single dynamic one.

54. What are the two ways of producing a list within a transaction?
By submitting a separate report.
By using leave to list-processing.

55. What is the use of the statement Leave to List-processing?
Leave to List-processing statement is used to produce a list from a module pool. Leave to list processing statement allows to switch from dialog-mode to list-mode within a dialog program.

56. When will the current screen processing terminates?
A current screen processing terminates when control reaches either a Leave-screen or the end of PAI.

57. How is the command Suppress-Dialog useful?
Suppressing entire screens is possible using this command. This command allows us to perform screen processing “in the background”. The system carries out all PBO and PAI logic, but does not display the screen to the user. Suppressing screens is useful when we are branching to list-mode from a transaction dialog step.

58. What happens if we use Leave to list-processing without using Suppress-Dialog?
If we don’t use Suppress-Dialog to next screen will be displayed but as empty, when the user presses ENTER, the standard list output is displayed.

59. How the transaction that are programmed by the user can be protected?
By implementing an authority check.

60. What are the modes in which any update tasks work?
Synchronous and Asynchronous.

61. What is the difference between Synchronous and Asynchronous updates?
A program asks the system to perform a certain task, and then either waits or doesn’t wait for the task to finish. In synchronous processing, the program waits: control returns to the program only when the task has been completed. In asynchronous processing, the program does not wait: the system returns control after merely logging the request for execution.

62. SAP system configuration incluedes Dialog tasks and Update tasks.
63. Dialog-task updates are Synchronous updates.
64. Update –task updates are Asynchronous updates.
65. What is the difference between Commit-work and Rollback-Work tasks?
Commit-Work statement “performs” many functions relevant to synchronized execution of tasks. Rollback-work statement “cancels: all reuests relevant to synchronized execution of tasks.

66. What are the different database integrities?
· Semantic Integrity.
· Relational Integrity.
· Primary Key Integrity.
· Value Set Integrity.
· Foreign Key integrity and
· Operational integrity.

67. All SAP Databases are Relational Databases.
68. What is SAP locking?
It is a mechanism for defining and applying logical locks to database objects.

69. What does a lock object involve?
The tables.
The lock argument.

70. What are the different kinds of lock modes?
Shared lock
Exclusive lock.
Extended exclusive list.

71. How can a lock object be called in the transaction?
By calling Enqueue and Dequeue in the transaction.

72. What are the events by which we can program “help texts” and display “possible value lists”?
-PROCESS ON HELP-REQUEST (POH).
-PROCESS ON VALUE-REQUEST (POV).

73. What is a matchcode?
A matchcode is an aid to finding records stored in the system whenever an object key is required in an input field but the user only knows other (non-key) information about the object.

74. In what ways we can get the context sensitive F1 help on a field?
- Data element documentation.
- Data element additional text in screen painter.
- Using the process on help request event.

75. What is roll area?
A roll area contains the program’s runtime context. In addition to the runtime stack and other structures, all local variables and any data known to the program are stored here.

76. How does the system handle roll areas for external program components?
- Transactions run in their own roll areas.
- Reports run in their own roll areas.
- Dialog modules run in their own roll areas
- Function modules run in the roll area of their callers.

77. Does the external program run in the same SAP LUW as the caller, or in a separate one?
- Transactions run with a separate SAP LUW
- Reports run with a separate SAP LUW.
- Dialog modules run in the same SAP LUW as the caller
- Function modules run in the same SAP LUW as the caller.
The only exceptions to the above rules are function modules called with IN UPDATE TASK (V2 function only) or IN BACKGROUND TASK (ALE applications). These always run in their own (separate) update transactions.

78. What are function modules?
Function modules are general-purpose library routines that are available system-wide.

79. What are the types of parameters in the function modules?
In general, function module can have four types of parameters:
- EXPORTING: for passing data to the called function.
- IMPORTING: for receiving data returned from the function module.
- TABLES: for passing internal tables only, by reference (that is, by address).
- CHANGING: for passing parameters to and from the function.

80. What is the difference between Leave Transaction and Call Transaction?
In contrast to LEAVE TO TRANSACTION, the CALL TRANSACTION statement causes the system to start a new SAP LUW. This second SAP LUW runs parallel to the SAP LUW for the calling transaction.

81. How can we pass selection and parameter data to a report?
There are three options for passing selection and parameter data to the report.
- Using SUBMIT…WITH
- Using a report variant.
- Using a range table.

82. How to send a report to the printer instead of displaying it on the screen?
We can send a report to the printer instead of diplaying it on the screen. To do this, use the keywords TO SAP-SPOOL:
SUBMIT RSFLFIND…TO SAP-SPOOL DESTINATION ‘LT50’.

83. How can we send data to external programs?
Using SPA/GPA parameters(SAP memory).
Using EXPORT/IMPORT data (ABAP/4 memory)

84. What are SPA/GPA parameters (SAP memory)
SPA/GPA parameters are field values saved globally in memory. There are two ways to use SPA/GPA parmeters:
By setting field attributes in the Screen Painter.
By using the SET PARAMETER or GET PARAMETER statements.

SAP ARCHITECTURE

1. What guarantees the integration of all application modules?
The R/3 basis system guarantees the integration of all application modules. The R/3 basis s/w provides the run time environment for the R/3 applications ensures optimal integration, defines a stable architectural frame for system enhancements, and contains the administration tools for the entire system.
One of the main tasks of the basis system is to guarantee the portability of the complete system.

2. What are the central interfaces of the R/3 system?
Presentation Interface.
Database Interface.
Operating system Interface.

3. Which interface controls what is shown on the p.c.?
Presentation Interface.

4. Which interface converts SQL requirements in the SAP development system to those of the database?
Database Interface.

5. What is SAP dispatcher?
SAP dispatcher is the control agent that manages the resources for the R/3 applications.

6. What are the functions of dispatcher?
Equal distribution of transaction load to the work processes.
Management of buffer areas in main memory.
Integration of the presentation levels.
Organization of communication activities.

7. What is a work process?
A work process is where individual dialog steps are actually processed and the work is done. Each work process handles one type of request.

8. Name various work processes of R/3 system?
Dialog or Online (processes only one request at a time).
Background (Started at a specific time)
Update (primary or secondary)
Enque (Lock mechanism).
Spool (generated online or during back ground processing for printing).

9. Explain about the two services that are used to deal with communication.
Message Service: Used by the application servers to exchange short internal messages, all system communications.
Gateway Service: Enables communication between R/3 and external applications using CPI-C protocol.

10. Which work process triggers database changes?
Update work process.

11. Define service (within R/3)?
A service is a process or group of processes that perform a specific system function and often provide an application-programming interface for other processes to call.

12. What are the roll and page areas?
Roll and page areas are SAP R/3 buffers used to store user contexts (process requests). The SAP dispatcher assigns process requests to work processes as they are queued in the roll and page areas.
Paging area holds data from the application programs.
Roll area holds data from previous dialog steps and data that characterize the user.

13. What are the different layers in R/3 system?
Presentation Layer.
Application Layer.
Database Layer.

14. What are the phases of background processing?
Job Scheduling.
Job Processing.
Job Overview.

15. What components of the R/e system initiate the start of background jobs at the specified time?
The batch scheduler initiates the start of background job. The dispatcher then sends this request to an available background work process for processing.

16. Define Instance.
An instance is an administrative unit in which components of an R/3 systems providing one or more services are grouped together. The services offered by an instance are started and stopped at random. All components are parameterized using a joint instance profile. A central R/3 system consists of a single instance in which all-necessary SAP services are offered. Each instance uses separate buffer areas.

17. From hardware perspective, every information system can be divided into three task areas Presentation, Application Logic and Data Storage.
The R/3 Basis software is highly suitable for use in multi-level client/server architectures.

18. What are R/3 Basis configurations?
A central system with centrally installed presentation software.
Two-level client/server system with rolled out presentation software.
Two-level client/server system. Presentation and Application run on the same computer.
Three-level client/server system. Presentation, Application and database each run on separate computers.

19. What is a Service in SAP terminology?
A service refers to something offered by a s/w component.

20. What is Server in SAP terminology?
A component can consist of one process or a group and is then called the server for the respective service.

21. What is a client in SAP terminology?
A S/W component that uses the service (offered by a s/w component) is called a Client. At the same time these clients may also be servers for other services.

22.What is a SAP system?
The union of all s/w components that are assigned to the same databases is called as a SAP system.

23. What is the means of communications between R/3 and external applications?
The means of communication between R/2,R/3 and external applications is via the CPI-C handler or SAP Gateway, using the CPI-C Protocol.

24. What is the protocol used by SAP Gateway process?
The SAP Gateway process communicates with the clients based on the TCP/IP Protocol.

25. Expand CPI-C.
Common Program Interface Communication.

26. What is a Spool request?
Spool requests are generated during dialog or background processing and placed in the spool database with information about the printer and print format. The actual data is places in the Tem Se (Temporary Sequential objects).

27. What are different types of Log records?
V1 and V2. V1 must be processed before V2. But, we can have more than one V2 logs.

28. What are the types of Update requests?
An update request can be divided into one primary (V1) and several Secondary update components (V2). Time-critical operations are placed in V1 component and those whose timing is less critical are placed in V2 components. If a V1 update fails, V2 components will not be processed.

29. Dialog work processes perform only one dialog step and then available for the next request.

30. Explain what is a transaction in SAP terminology.
In SAP terminology, a transaction is series of logically connected dialog steps.

31. Explain how SAP GUI handles output screen for the user.
The SAP front-end s/w can either run on the same computer or on different computers provided for that purpose. User terminal input is accepted by the SAP terminal program SAP GUI, converted to SAP proprietary format and sent to the SAP dispatcher. The dispatcher coordinates the information exchange between the SAP GUIs and the work processes. The dispatcher first places the processing request in request queues, which it then processes. The dispatcher dispatches the requests one after another, to the available work process. The actual processing takes place in the work process. When processing is complete, the result of a work process is returned via the dispatcher to the SAP GUI. The SAP GUI interprets the received data and generates the output screen for the user.

SAP ARCHITECTURE

1. What guarantees the integration of all application modules?
The R/3 basis system guarantees the integration of all application modules. The R/3 basis s/w provides the run time environment for the R/3 applications ensures optimal integration, defines a stable architectural frame for system enhancements, and contains the administration tools for the entire system.
One of the main tasks of the basis system is to guarantee the portability of the complete system.

2. What are the central interfaces of the R/3 system?
Presentation Interface.
Database Interface.
Operating system Interface.

3. Which interface controls what is shown on the p.c.?
Presentation Interface.

4. Which interface converts SQL requirements in the SAP development system to those of the database?
Database Interface.

5. What is SAP dispatcher?
SAP dispatcher is the control agent that manages the resources for the R/3 applications.

6. What are the functions of dispatcher?
Equal distribution of transaction load to the work processes.
Management of buffer areas in main memory.
Integration of the presentation levels.
Organization of communication activities.

7. What is a work process?
A work process is where individual dialog steps are actually processed and the work is done. Each work process handles one type of request.

8. Name various work processes of R/3 system?
Dialog or Online (processes only one request at a time).
Background (Started at a specific time)
Update (primary or secondary)
Enque (Lock mechanism).
Spool (generated online or during back ground processing for printing).

9. Explain about the two services that are used to deal with communication.
Message Service: Used by the application servers to exchange short internal messages, all system communications.
Gateway Service: Enables communication between R/3 and external applications using CPI-C protocol.

10. Which work process triggers database changes?
Update work process.

11. Define service (within R/3)?
A service is a process or group of processes that perform a specific system function and often provide an application-programming interface for other processes to call.

12. What are the roll and page areas?
Roll and page areas are SAP R/3 buffers used to store user contexts (process requests). The SAP dispatcher assigns process requests to work processes as they are queued in the roll and page areas.
Paging area holds data from the application programs.
Roll area holds data from previous dialog steps and data that characterize the user.

13. What are the different layers in R/3 system?
Presentation Layer.
Application Layer.
Database Layer.

14. What are the phases of background processing?
Job Scheduling.
Job Processing.
Job Overview.

15. What components of the R/e system initiate the start of background jobs at the specified time?
The batch scheduler initiates the start of background job. The dispatcher then sends this request to an available background work process for processing.

16. Define Instance.
An instance is an administrative unit in which components of an R/3 systems providing one or more services are grouped together. The services offered by an instance are started and stopped at random. All components are parameterized using a joint instance profile. A central R/3 system consists of a single instance in which all-necessary SAP services are offered. Each instance uses separate buffer areas.

17. From hardware perspective, every information system can be divided into three task areas Presentation, Application Logic and Data Storage.
The R/3 Basis software is highly suitable for use in multi-level client/server architectures.

18. What are R/3 Basis configurations?
A central system with centrally installed presentation software.
Two-level client/server system with rolled out presentation software.
Two-level client/server system. Presentation and Application run on the same computer.
Three-level client/server system. Presentation, Application and database each run on separate computers.

19. What is a Service in SAP terminology?
A service refers to something offered by a s/w component.

20. What is Server in SAP terminology?
A component can consist of one process or a group and is then called the server for the respective service.

21. What is a client in SAP terminology?
A S/W component that uses the service (offered by a s/w component) is called a Client. At the same time these clients may also be servers for other services.

22.What is a SAP system?
The union of all s/w components that are assigned to the same databases is called as a SAP system.

23. What is the means of communications between R/3 and external applications?
The means of communication between R/2,R/3 and external applications is via the CPI-C handler or SAP Gateway, using the CPI-C Protocol.

24. What is the protocol used by SAP Gateway process?
The SAP Gateway process communicates with the clients based on the TCP/IP Protocol.

25. Expand CPI-C.
Common Program Interface Communication.

26. What is a Spool request?
Spool requests are generated during dialog or background processing and placed in the spool database with information about the printer and print format. The actual data is places in the Tem Se (Temporary Sequential objects).

27. What are different types of Log records?
V1 and V2. V1 must be processed before V2. But, we can have more than one V2 logs.

28. What are the types of Update requests?
An update request can be divided into one primary (V1) and several Secondary update components (V2). Time-critical operations are placed in V1 component and those whose timing is less critical are placed in V2 components. If a V1 update fails, V2 components will not be processed.

29. Dialog work processes perform only one dialog step and then available for the next request.

30. Explain what is a transaction in SAP terminology.
In SAP terminology, a transaction is series of logically connected dialog steps.

31. Explain how SAP GUI handles output screen for the user.
The SAP front-end s/w can either run on the same computer or on different computers provided for that purpose. User terminal input is accepted by the SAP terminal program SAP GUI, converted to SAP proprietary format and sent to the SAP dispatcher. The dispatcher coordinates the information exchange between the SAP GUIs and the work processes. The dispatcher first places the processing request in request queues, which it then processes. The dispatcher dispatches the requests one after another, to the available work process. The actual processing takes place in the work process. When processing is complete, the result of a work process is returned via the dispatcher to the SAP GUI. The SAP GUI interprets the received data and generates the output screen for the user.

SAP Modularization

Does every ABAP/4 have a modular structure?
Yes.

What is Modularization and its benefits?
If the program contains the same or similar blocks of statements or it is required to process the same function several times, we can avoid redundancy by using modularization techniques. By modularizing the ABAP/4 programs we make them easy to read and improve their structure. Modularized programs are also easier to maintain and to update.

Name the ABAP/4 Modularization techniques.
· Source code module.
· Subroutines.
· Functions.

How can we create callable modules of program code within one ABAP/4 program?
· By defining Macros.
· By creating include programs in the library.

M is the attribute type of the module program.

Is it possible to pass data to and from include programs explicitly?
No. If it is required to pass data to and from modules it is required to use subroutines or function modules.

What are subroutines?
Subroutines are program modules, which can be called from other ABAP/4 programs or within the same program.

What are the types of Subroutines?
· Internal Subroutines: The source code of the internal subroutines will be in the same ABAP/4 program as the calling procedure (internal call).
· External Subroutines: The source code of the external subroutines will be in an ABAP/4 program other than the calling procedure.

It is not possible to create an ABAP/4 program, which contains only Subroutines (T/F).
False.

A subroutine can contain nested form and endform blocks. (T/F)
False.

Data can be passed between calling programs and the subroutines using Parameters.

What are the different types of parameters?
Formal Parameters: Parameters, which are defined during the definition of subroutine with the FORM statement.
Actual Parameters: Parameters which are specified during the call of a subroutine with the PERFORM statement.

How can one distinguish between different kinds of parameters?
· Input parameters are used to pass data to subroutines.
· Output parameters are used to pass data from subroutines.

What are the different methods of passing data?
· Calling by reference: During a subroutine call, only the address of the actual parameter is transferred to the formal parameters. The formal parameter has no memory of its own, and we work with the field of the calling program within the subroutine. If we change the formal parameter, the field contents in the calling program also changes.
· Calling by value: During a subroutine call, the formal parameters are created as copies of the actual parameters. The formal parameters have memory of their own. Changes to the formal parameters have no effect on the actual parameters.
· Calling by value and result: During a subroutine call, the formal parameters are created as copies of the actual parameters. The formal parameters have their own memory space. Changes to the formal parameters are copied to the actual parameters at the end of the subroutine.

The method by which internal tables are passed is By Reference.

16. How can an internal table with Header line and one without header line be distinguished when passed to a subroutine?
Itab[] is used in the form and endform if the internal table is passed with a header line.

What should be declared explicitly in the corresponding ABAP/4 Statements to access internal tables without header lines & why?
Work Area. This is required as the Work Area is the interface for transferring data to and from the table.

A subroutine can be terminated unconditionally using EXIT. (T/F)
True.

A subroutine can be terminated upon a condition using CHECK Statement.

Function Modules are also external Subroutines. (T/F).
True.

What is the difference between the function module and a normal ABAP/4 subroutine?
In contrast to normal subroutines function modules have uniquely defined interface. Declaring data as common parts is not possible for function modules. Function modules are stored in a central library.

What is a function group?
A function group is a collection of logically related modules that share global data with each other. All the modules in the group are included in the same main program. When an ABAP/4 program contains a CALL FUNCTION statement, the system loads the entire function group in with the program code at runtime. Every function module belongs to a function group.

What is the disadvantage of a call by reference?
During a call by reference damage or loss of data is not restricted to the subroutine, but will instantly lead to changes to the original data objects.

A function module can be called from a transaction screen outside an ABAP/4 program. (T/F).
True.

What is an update task?
It is an SAP provided procedure for updating a database.

What happens if a function module runs in an update task?
The system performs the module processing asynchronously. Instead of carrying out the call immediately, the system waits until the next database update is triggered with the ‘COMMIT WORK’ command.

The function modules are created and stored in the Function Library.
When a function module is activated syntax checking is performed automatically. (Y/N)
True.

What is the use of the RAISING exception?
The raising exception determines whether the calling program will handle the exception itself or leave the exception to the system.

What is the difference between internal tables and extract datasets?
· The lines of an internal table always have the same structure. By using extract datasets, you can handle groups of data with different structure and get statistical figures from the grouped data.
· You have to define the structure of the internal table at the beginning. You need not define the structure of the extract dataset.
· In contrast to internal tables, the system partly compresses exact datasets when storing them. This reduces the storage space required.
· Internal tables require special work area for interface whereas extract datasets do not need a special work area for interface.

It is possible to assign a local data object defined in a subroutine or function module to a field group. (T/F).
False.
What is the difference between field-group header and other field groups?
The header field group is a special field group for the sort criteria. The system automatically prefixes any other field groups with the header field group.
Can a filed occur in several field groups.
Yes. But it leads to unnecessary data redundancy.
When sorting the extract dataset the fields used as default sort key lie in the Header field group.
What does the insert statement in extract datasets do?
It defines the fields of a field group.
What does the extract statement do in extract datasets?
The data is written to virtual memory by extract commands.
A field-groups statement or an insert statement reverses storage space and transfers values. (T/F).
False.
While using extract datasets it is required to have a special workarea for interface (T/F)
False.
The LOOP-ENDLOOP on extract datasets can be used without any kind of errors (T/F)
False. It causes runtime errors.
The Maximum no of key fields that can be used in a header is 50.
While sorting field groups we cannot use more than one key field (T/F).
False.
While sorting, if the main storage available is not enough, the system writes data to an external help file. The SAP profile parameter, which determines this help file, is DIR_SORTTMP.
43. The extract statements in field groups can be used before or after processing the sort statements. (T/F)
FALSE.

SAP Logical Database

Preparation of the data records by the L.D.B and reading of the data records in the actual report are accomplished with the command pair Put and Get.
The three main elements of LDB are Structure, Selections, and Database Program.
In LDB what determines hierarchy of the tables?
Structure.
In general what are the two ways in which one can retrieve data from tables?
Using Select statements, Database Program.
With LDB one can modify the pre-generated selection screen to their needs (T/F).
Yes.
Logical databases are programs that read data from Database tables (Dictionary Structures).
The event Get< table > LATE process all tables that are hierarchically superior to the < table >. (True/False)
False. It processes all tables that are hierarchically inferior to the < table >.
8. The Database Program of LDB is a collection of SUBROUTINES, which selects data and passes it to the report.
The layout of the Database program is determined by both Structure and Selections.
The order in which data is made available to the report depends on Structure of the LDB.
Apart from the structure and selections of the LDB the GET statements in the report determines the behavior of the database at runtime.
Node at the highest level in the structure is known as Root.
There can be more than one node at the highest level in the structure. (T/F)
False. One can define only one node at the highest level in the structure on LDB.
All nodes in the structure of LDB need not be defined in the ABAP/4 Dictionary (T/F).
False. One has to define all nodes in the Dictionary or one has to select all nodes that are defined in the Dictionary.
It is not possible to use ABAP/4 Dictionary Structures without an underlying database using LDB. (T/F)
True. One can use additionally related tables, along with the tables defined in the structure of LDB.
Dynamic selections allow the user to define further selections for database access in addition to the selection criteria already defined in the LDB selections.
Check statement can be used along with the event GET in the report for checking the selections, which are not table-specific values.
In sense of Database Management System (DBMS) LOGICAL DATABASE is a database Structure. (T/F).
False.
It is not necessary to maintain the Parent-Child relationship between the tables in Logical Database Structure. (T/F)
False. One has to maintain the Parent-Child relationship.
Is it possible to extract data from tables without using the event ‘GET’ in the report with an appropriate LDB. (T/F).
False. One can extract data from tables using Select statements in a report, though the report is having a LDB attribute.
What sorts of tables one can se in designing the hierarchy of a LDB?
Tables, which are having Foreign Key relations.
A report program, which uses only SELECT statements, is called SQL Report.
One cannot use SELECT statements in a report program linked to a Logical Database (T/F). False.
Is it true that the Logical Database reads the data from the database tables using Select Statements (T/F).
Yes. We are coding that in Database part of LDB.

In a report with an LDB attribute, you do not have to define how the information should be retrieved from the database tables, but only how the data should be represented on the screen. (T/F).
True.
One can use the event GET in a report without LDB attribute. (T/F).
False.
The last character of the LDB name denotes Application.
The structure of Logical Databases reflects the Foreign Key dependencies of hierarchical tables in the SAP system.
It is mandatory that for each table in the LDB hierarchy there should exist one GET statement in the report. (T/F).
False. It is not necessary.
What happens if a report does not contain a GET statement for a particular node of a Logical Database.
Process will transfer to the next event.
In a Logical Database, one can define input fields on the selection screen with Select-Options and Parameters statements.
Suppose a logical database program contains the following lines:
SELECT-OPTIONS CONNID FOR SPFLI-CONNID.
PARAMETERS CARRID LIKE SFLIGHT-CARRID FOR TABLE SFLIGHT.
What will be the output, for the above two statements?
Only select-options connid for spfli-carrid will be displayed on the screen.

Consider a report with F1S attribute, what will be the output for the following code. Whether you will get the data from spfli and sflight or not, with corresponding tables statement,
GET SPFLI.
GET SFLIGHT.
Write:/ spfli-carrid, spfli-connid, sflight-fldate, sbook-bookid.
Yes, you will get the data from spfli and sflight.

Consider a report with F1S attribute, what will be the output of the following code. Whether you will get the data from sbook or not, with corresponding tables statement.
GET SPFLI.
GET SFLIGHT.
Write:/ spfli-carrid, spfli-connid, sflight-fldate, sbook-bookid.
You cannot extract data from sbook.

Identify any errors in the following code and correct the same, and what will be the output. If there exists corresponding tables statement, for spfli, sflight, sbook.
GET SPFLI.
GET SBOOK.
Write:/ spfli-carrid, spfli-connid, sflight-fldate, sbook-bookid, sbook-class.
No syntax errors. You will get data from all the three tables.

Does the following two statements do the same task? If so which one takes less time and which one is recommended.
Select * from spfli where spfli-carrid = ‘LH’ and spfli-connid = ‘400’.
Endselect.
Select * from spfli. Check: spfli-carrid = ‘LH’ and spflid-connid = ‘400’.
Endselect.
-Yes they will do the same task. Second Select statement takes less time and is recommended.

If you want to improve the response time (time to access data) Logical Databases permits you to achieve this using VIEWS.
Is there any upper limit (max) to the possible number of nodes in a logical database structure? If so what is the limit?
Yes, there is an upper limit for defining number of nodes in a Logical Database Structure.
Maximum nodes = 1200 / length where length = max. Length of name in the structure.

In the structure of Logical Database nodes at different levels are displayed in the same columns. (T/F) If false what types of nodes are displayed in the same columns. If true what type of nodes are not displayed in the same columns.
False. Nodes at same levels are displayed in the same columns.

What are the advantages of Logical Databases?
It offers an easy-to-use selection screens. You can modify the pre-generated selection screen to your needs. It offers check functions to check whether user input is complete, correct, and plausible. It offers reasonable data selections. It contains central authorization checks for data base accesses. Enhancements such as improved performance immediately apply to all report programs that use the logical database.

Though all the ABAP/4 Dictionary Structures that exists in the structure of the LDB, being defined in Database Program, we are defining the Dictionary Structures in the Report. What is the reason for such declaration?
By declaring so we are providing work areas for data passing between Logical Database and Report. In addition, the logical database configures the selection screen depending on the selection of database tables.
Is it mandatory to declare all the tables in Report by the key word tables for all the tables that exist in the structure of LDB, and are being defined in the Database part of LDB.
No, It is not mandatory to declare all tables in report.
If one wants to access data using Logical Database, the use of events is unavoidable. (T/F). True.

SAP Report Generation - Formatting

The alignment of a type ‘c’ field in a report is left Aligned.
In the statement Write:/15(10) Ofal-lifnr. what do the number 15 and 10 stand for
15 stand for the offset on the screen and 10 stands for the field length displayed.
3. Specify the default alignment for the following field types:
‘D’ – Left, ‘F’-Right, ‘N’-Left, ‘I’-Right, ‘T’-Left.
If s_time has the value ‘123456’ how would you get an output of 12:34:56 with a single ‘Write:’ statement.
Write:s_time using edit mask’--:--:--‘.
In order to suppress the leading zeroes of a number field the keywords used are NO-ZERO.
The total no of date formats that can be used to display a date during output is MM/DD/YY, DD/MM/YY, DD/MM/YYYY, MM/DD/YYYY, MMDDYY, DDMMYY, YYMMDD.
The UNDER Command allows for vertical alignment of fields one below the other.
In order to concatenate strings only for output purposes the command NO-GAP can be used in conjunction with the ‘Write’ statement.
The no of decimal places for output can be defines within a write statement. (T/F).
TRUE. Write:/ decimals 2.
Data can be moved from one field to another using a ‘Write:’ Statement and stored in the desired format. (T/F).
TRUE. Write: Date_1 to Date_2 format DD/MM/YY.
In the statement Write:/15(10) lfa1-lifnr. The values 15 and 11 can also be defined by variables (T/F). False.
Differentiate between the following two statements if any.
ULINE.
Write: sy-uline.
No-difference. Except that uline is used outside the ‘Write’ Statement.
In order to skip a single line the number of lines need not be given as an assignment (T/F)
TRUE.
The “SKIP TO LINE line number” is dependent on the LINE-COUNT statement included in the report statement of the program.
In order to skip columns the command used is POSITION .
In order to have boldfaced text as output the command used is Write:INTENSIFIED.
Background and foreground colors can be interchanged using the command Format Inverse.
In order to restore the system defaults for all changes made with the format statement is Format Reset.
Like ULINE the statement VLINE is used to insert vertical lines. (T/F).
False.
20. Suppressing the number signs (+/-) is carried out using the addition NO-SIGNS to the Write statement. (T/F). False.
If SY-UZEIT has the value 6:34:45 it can be displayed as 063445 using No Edit Mask.
If the variable “Text” has the value ‘ABCDEF’ the output for the statement “Write:/Text+2(3)” will be “CDE”
The fields specified by select-options and parameters statement cannot be grouped together in the selection screen. (T/F). False.
When calling an external report the parameters or select-options specified in the external report cannot be called. (T/F)
FALSE.
Selection Texts in the text elements of the program helps in changing the displayed names of variables in the parameters statement.
Type F datatype cannot be used to define parameters.
27. Rounding off of values can be carried out using the write statement. (T/F). TRUE
How would you define the exponents for a type ‘f’ field?
Exponent .
How would you format the output as left, centered or right-justified using the write statement.
Left-justified, Centered, Right-justified.
If the same formatting options were used for a WRITE statement that follows the FORMAT statement, which settings would take precedence.
The settings in the Write Statement.
For each new event, the system resets all formatting options to their default values (T/F)
TRUE.
All formatting options have the default value OFF. (T/F).
TRUE.
How would you set the formatting options statically and dynamically within a report? Statically: FORMAT [ONOFF]….
Dynamically: FORMAT = =….
The page footer is defined using the statement END-OF-PAGE.
The processing block following END-OF-PAGE is processed only if you reserve lines for the footer in the LINE-COUNT option of the REPORT statement. (T/F)
TRUE.
To execute a page break under the condition that less than a certain number of lines is left on a page is achieved by RESERVE n lines.
The RESERVE statement only takes effect if output is written to the subsequent page. No blank pages are created and it defines a block of lines that must be output as a whole. (T/F). TRUE.
To set the next output line to the first line of a block of lines defined with the RESERVE statement the statement BACK is used.
What is the limit for the length of a page if the page length is not specified in the report statement. 60,000 lines.
How would you start the printing process from within the program while creating a list?
NEW-PAGE PRINT ON.
You can change the width of pages within list levels triggered by page breaks. (T/F).
FALSE.
Hotspots are special areas of an output list used to trigger events. (T/F) TRUE.
To designate fields as hotspots at runtime, use FORMAT HOTSPOT = .
Horizontal lines created with ULINE and blank lines created with SKIP can be formatted as hotspots. (T/F). FALSE.
How would you suppress the display of a parameter on the selection screen?
Parameters

………..No-Display.
Can you assign a matchcode object to a parameter? If so how?
Yes. PARAMETERS

……..MATCHCODE OBJECT ……..
For each SELECT-OPTIONS statement, the system creates a selection table. (T/F)
TRUE.
To position a set of parameters or comments on a single line on the selection screen, you must declare the elements in a block enclosed by
SELECTION-SCREEN BEGIN OF LINE.
……..
SELECTION-SCREEN END OF LINE.
How can Symbols or R/3 icons be output on the screen?
WRITE AS SYMBOL.
WRITE AS ICON.
In the standard setting, you cannot create empty lines with the WRITE statement alone. (T/F). TRUE.

SAP Reporting - General

The system field, which indicates success or failure of a SQL operation, is SY-SUBRC.
What is the syntax for specifying database table name at runtime in SELECT statement.
NAME = ‘SPFL1’.
SELECT * FROM (NAME).
……………….
……………….
ENDSELECT.
How do you read selected lines of database table into an internal table in packages of predefined size.
SELECT * FROM INTO TABLE PACKAGE SIZE.
Where n is variable.
Name the WILDCARD characters which are used for comparisons with character strings & numeric strings. ‘%’ and ‘-‘.
In SELECT statements can you specify a variable in WHERE condition or a part of the condition, if so what is the syntax.
SELECT * FROM < table >WHERE < var1 >< condition >< var >.
Name the ABAP/4 key words, which are used to change the contents of database table.
UPDATE or MODIFY.
7. How to specify a client for database table processing.
TABLES SPFLI.
SELECT * FROM SPFLI CLIENT SPECIFIED WHERE MANDT BETWEEN ‘001’ AND ‘003’.
……..
ENDSELECT.
How do you write a DATA object from ABAP/4 program to ABAP/4 memory and restore the same from memory to program.
EXPORT [FROM ][FROM ]…. TO MEMORY ID .
The ID , which can be up to 32 characters long, identifies the data in memory.
What are DATA CLUSTERS?
You can group any complex internal data objects of an ABAP/4 program together in data clusters and store them temporarily in ABAP/4 memory or for longer periods in databases. You can store data clusters in special databases of the ABAP/4 Dictionary. These databases are known as ABAP/4 cluster databases and have a predefined structure. Storing a data cluster is specific to ABAP/4. Although you can also access cluster databases using SQL statements, only ABAP/4 statements are able to decode the structure of the stored data cluster.
Statements used to delete data objects in ABAP/4 memory FREE MEMORY [ID ].
How will you create a file on application server.
Open dataset for output.
ABAP/4 statement for opening a file on application server for reading Open dataset for input.
How will you transfer data into a file in application server?
Data fname(60) value ‘mYFILE’.
Data num type i.
Open dataset fname for output.
Do 10 times.
Num = Num +1.
Transfer num to fname.
Enddo.
…….etc.
Name the function modules to write data from an Internal Table to the Presentation Server.
DOWNLOAD and WS_DOWNLOAD.
Name the function module that can be used to give information about files on Presentation Server and about its Operating System.
WS_QUERY.
Name the ABAP/4 key word, which is used to clear the Headerline of an Internal Table.
CLEAR.
Name the function modules to read data from Presentation Server into an Internal Table.
UPLOAD and WS_UPLOAD.
Name the ABAP/4 keywords to initialize an Internal Table with and without headerline.
REFRESH .
How to determine the attributes of an internal table?
DESCRIBE TABLE [LINES ] [OCCURS ].
Name the ABAP/4 key word for searching a string in an Internal Table.
SEARCH FOR .
The different options () for the search in an internal table are:

ABBREVIATED
Searches tablefor a word containing the character string specified in , where other characters might separate the characters. The first letter of the word and the string must be the same.
STARTING AT
Searches table for , starting at line . <\lin1> can be a variable.
ENDING AT
Searches table for upto line. can be a variable.
AND MARK
If the search string is found, all the characters in the search string (and all the characters in between when using ABBREVIATED) are converted to upper case.

What are the different attributes that can be assigned to a variant?
The different attributes that can be assigned to a variant are….
Description
Enter a short, meaningful description of the variant. This may be upto 30 characters long.
Background only
Specify whether you want to use the variant in background processing only, or in online environment as well.
Protected variant.
Mark the field if you want to protect your variant against being changed by other users.
Do not display variant.
Mark this field if you want the variant name to be displayed in the catalog only, but not in the F4 value list.

For the selections you cover in a variant, you can enter the following attributes:
Type
The system displays whether the field is a parameter or a select option.
Protected
Mark this field for each field on the selection screen you want to protect from being overwritten. Values that you mark this way are displayed to the users, but they cannot change them, that are they are not ready to accept input.
Invisible
If you mark this column, the system will not display the corresponding field on the selection screen the user sees when starting the report program.
Variable
Mark this column if you want to set the value for this field at runtime.

Is it possible to create new dynamic programs during runtime of an ABAP/4 program? If so how?
To create new dynamic programs during the runtime of an ABAP/4 program, you must use an internal table. For this purpose, you should create this internal table with one character type column and a line width of 72. You can use any method you like from Filling Internal Tables to write the code of your new program into the internal table. Especially, you can use internal fields in which contents are dependent on the flow of the program that you use to create a new one, to influence the coding of the new program dynamically. The following example shows how to proceed in principal:
DATA CODE (72) OCCURS 10.
APPEND ‘REPORT ZDYN1.’
TO CODE.
APPEND ‘WRITE/”Hello, I am dynamically created!”.’
TO CODE.
Two lines of a very simple program are written into the internal table CODE.

In the next step you have to put the new module, in the above example it is a report, into the library. For this purpose you can use the following statement:

Syntax

INSERT REPORT FROM .

The program is inserted in your present development class in the R/3 Repository. If a program with this name does not already exists, it is newly created with the following attributes:
Title: none,
Type: 1 (Reporting),
Application: S (Basis).
You can specify the name of the program explicitly within single quotation marks or you can write the name of a character field, which contains the program name. The name of the program must not necessarily be the same as given in the coding, but it is recommended to do so. is the internal table containing the source code. For the above example you could write:
INSERT REPORT ‘ZDYN1’ FROM CODE.
Or
DATA REP (8).
REP = ‘ZDYN1’
INSERT REPORT REP FROM CODE.

Data types can be elementary or structured (T/F).
TRUE.
The amount of memory associated with a data type is ZERO.
Data objects are the physical units a program uses at runtime. (T/F).
TRUE.
The data object does not occupy any space in memory. (T/F)
FALSE.
What are the three hierarchical levels of data types and objects?
Program-independent data, defined in the ABAP/4 Dictionary.
Internal data used globally in one program.
Data used locally in a procedure (subroutine, function module)

How would you find the attributes of a data type or data object?
DESCRIBE FIELD [LENGTH [COMPONENTS ]]
[OUTPUT-LENGTH ] [DECIMALS ]
[EDIT MASK ].
The components of a field string cannot have different data types. (T/F).
FALSE.
Field strings are also called as Record or Structures.
If a field string is aligned (Left, centered, right justified etc.), the filler fields are also added to the length of the type C field. (T/F).
TRUE.
You cannot assign a local data object defined in a subroutine or function module to a field group. (T/F)
TRUE.
A field group reserves storage space for the fields, and does not contain pointers to existing fields (T/F).
False.
Defining a field group as ‘HEADER’ is optional (T/F)
FALSE.
How would you define a field symbol?
FIELD-SYMBOLS.
Which function module would you use to check the user’s authorization to access files before opening a file?
AUTHORITY_CHECK_DATASET
30. Name the function module used to convert logical file names to physical file names in ABAP/4 programs.
FILE_GET_NAME.
Parameters, which are defined during the definition of a subroutine with the FORM statement, are called Formal Parameters.
Parameters which are specified during the call of a subroutine with the PERFORM statement are called Actual Parameters.
In subroutines internal tables that are passed by TABLES, are always called by value and result. (T/F)
FALSE. They are called by reference.

SAP Interactive Reporting

1. What is interactive reporting?
It helps you to create easy-to-read lists. You can display an overview list first that contains general information and provide the user with the possibility of choosing detailed information that you display on further lists.
What are the uses of interactive reporting?
The user can actively control data retrieval and display during the session. Instead of an extensive and detailed list, you create a basic list with condensed information from which the user can switch to detailed displays by positioning the cursor and entering commands. The detailed information appears in secondary lists.
What are the event key words in interactive reporting?
Event Keyword Event
AT LINE-SELECTION Moment at which the user selects a line by double clicking on it or by positioning the cursor on it and pressing F2.
AT USER-COMMAND Moment at which the user presses a function key.
TOP-OF-PAGE DURING Moment during list processing of a
LINE-SELECTION secondary list at which a new page starts.

What is secondary list?
It allows you to enhance the information presented in the basic list. The user can, for example, select a line of the basic list for which he wants to see more detailed information. You display these details on a secondary list. Secondary lists may either overlay the basic list completely or you can display them in an extra window on the screen. The secondary lists can themselves be interactive again.

How to select valid lines for secondary list?
To prevent the user from selecting invalid lines, ABAP/4 offers several possibilities. At the end of the processing block END-OF-SELECTION, delete the contents of one or more fields you previously stored for valid lines using the HIDE statement. At the event AT LINE-SELECTION, check whether the work area is initial or whether the HIDE statement stored field contents there. After processing the secondary list, clear the work area again. This prevents the user from trying to create further secondary lists from the secondary list displayed.
How to create user interfaces for lists?
The R/3 system automatically, generates a graphical user interface (GUI) for your lists that offers the basic functions for list processing, such as saving or printing the list. If you want to include additional functionality, such as pushbuttons, you must define your own interface status. To create a new status, the Development Workbench offers the Menu Painter. With the Menu Painter, you can create menus and application toolbars. And you can assign Function Keys to certain functions. At the beginning of the statement block of AT END-OF-SELECTION, active the status of the basic list using the statement: SET PF-STATUS ‘STATUS’.

What is interactive reporting?
A classical non-interactive report consists of one program that creates a single list. Instead of one extensive and detailed list, with interactive reporting you create basic list from which the user can call detailed information by positioning the cursor and entering commands. Interactive reporting thus reduces information retrieval to the data actually required.

Can we call reports and transactions from interactive reporting lists?
Yes. It also allows you to call transactions or other reports from lists. These programs then use values displayed in the list as input values. The user can, for example, call a transaction from within a list of change the database table whose data is displayed in the list.
What are system fields for secondary lists?
SY-LSIND Index of the list created during the current event (basic list = 0)
SY-LIST1 Index of the list level from which the event was triggered.
SY-LILL1 Absolute number of the line from which the event was triggered.
SY-LISEL Contents of the line from which the event was triggered.
SY-CUROW Position of the line in the window from which the event was triggered (counting starts with 1)
SY-CUCOL Position of the column in the window from which the event was triggered (counting starts with 2).
SY-CPAGE Page number of the first displayed page of the list from which the event was triggered.
SY-STARO Number of the first line of the first page displayed of the list from which the event was triggered (counting starts with 1). Possibly, a page header occupies this line.
SY-STACO Number of the first column displayed in the list from which the event was triggered (counting starts with 1).
SY-UCOMM Function code that triggered the event.
SY-PFKEY Status of the displayed list.

How to maintain lists?
To return from a high list level to the next-lower level (SY-LSIND), the user chooses Back on a secondary list. The system then releases the currently displayed list and activates the list created one step earlier. The system deletes the contents of the released list. To explicitly specify the list level, into which you want to place output, set the SY-lsind field. The system accepts only index values, which correspond to existing list levels. It then deletes all existing list levels whose index is greater or equal to the index specify. For example, if you set SY-LSIND to 0, the system deletes all secondary lists and overwrites the basic list with the current secondary list.

What are the page headers for secondary lists?
On secondary lists, the system does not display a standard page header and it does not trigger the event. TOP-OF-PAGE. To create page headers for secondary list, you must enhance TOP-OF-PAGE: Syntax TOP-OF-PAGE DURING LINE-SELECTION. The system triggers this event for each secondary list. If you want to create different page headers for different list levels, you must program the processing block of this event accordingly, for example by using system fields such as SY-LSIND or SY-PFKEY in control statements (IF, CASE).
How to use messages in lists?
ABAP/4 allows you to react to incorrect or doubtful user input by displaying messages that influence the program flow depending on how serious the error was. Handling messages is mainly a topic of dialog programming. You store and maintain messages in Table T100. Messages are sorted by language, by a two-character ID, and by a three-digit number. You can assign different message types to each message you output. The influence of a message on the program flow depends on the message type. In our program, use the MESSAGE statement to output messages statically or dynamically and to determine the message type.
Syntax:REPORT MESSAGE-ID .
What are the types of messages?
A message can have five different types. These message types have the following effects during list processing:
.A (=Abend):
.E (=Error) or W (=Warning):
.I (=Information):
.S (=Success):

What are the user interfaces of interactive lists?
If you want the user to communicate with the system during list display, the list must be interactive. You can define specific interactive possibilities in the status of the list’s user interface (GUI). To define the statuses of interfaces in the R/3 system, use the Menu Painter tool. In the Menu Painter, assign function codes to certain interactive functions. After an user action occurs on the completed interface, the ABAP/4 processor checks the function code and, if valid, triggers the corresponding event.

What are the drill-down features provided by ABAP/4 in interactive lists?
ABAP/4 provides some interactive events on lists such as AT LINE-SELECTION (double click) or AT USER-COMMAND (pressing a button). You can use these events to move through layers of information about individual items in a list.

What is meant by stacked list?
A stacked list is nothing but secondary list and is displayed on a full-size screen unless you have specified its coordinates using the window command.

Is the basic list deleted when the new list is created?
No. It is not deleted and you can return back to it using one of the standard navigation functions like clicking on the back button or the cancel button.

What is meant by hotspots?
A Hotspot is a list area where the mouse pointer appears as an upright hand symbol. When a user points to that area (and the hand cursor is active), a single click does the same thing as a double-click. Hotspots are supported from R/3 release 3.0c.

What is the length of function code at user-command?
Each menu function, push button, or function key has an associated function code of length FOUR (for example, FREE), which is available in the system field SYUCOMM after the user action.

Can we create a gui status in a program from the object browser?
Yes. You can create a GUI STATUS in a program using SET PF-STATUS.

In which system field does the name of current gui status is there?
The name of the current GUI STATUS is available in the system field SY-PFKEY.

Can we display a list in a pop-up screen other than full-size stacked list?
Yes, we can display a list in a pop-up screen using the command WINDOW with the additions starting at X1 Y1 and ending at X2 Y2 to set the upper-left and the lower-right corners where x1 y1 and x2 y2 are the coordinates.

What is meant by hide area?
The hide command temporarily stores the contents of the field at the current line in a system-controlled memory called the HIDE AREA. At an interactive event, the contents of the field are restored from the HIDE AREA.

When the get cursor command used in interactive lists?
If the hidden information is not sufficient to uniquely identify the selected line, the command GET CURSOR is used. The GET CURSOR command returns the name of the field at the cursor position in a field specified after the addition field, and the value of the selected field in a field specified after value.

How can you display frames (horizontal and vertical lines) in lists?
You can display tabular lists with horizontal and vertical lines (FRAMES) using the ULINE command and the system field SY-VLINE. The corners arising at the intersection of horizontal and vertical lines are automatically drawn by the system.
What are the events used for page headers and footers?
The events TOP-OF-PAGE and END-OF-PAGE are used for pager headers and footers.

How can you access the function code from menu painter?
From within the program, you can use the SY-UCOMM system field to access the function code. You can define individual interfaces for your report and assign them in the report to any list level. If you do not specify self-defined interfaces in the report but use at least one of the three interactive event keywords. AT LINE-SELECTION, AT PF, OR AT USER-COMMAND in the program, the system automatically uses appropriate predefined standard interfaces. These standard interfaces provide the same functions as the standard list described under the standard list.

How the at-user command serves mainly in lists?
The AT USER-COMMAND event serves mainly to handle own function codes. In this case, you should create an individual interface with the Menu Painter and define such function codes.

How to pass data from list to report?
ABAP/4 provides three ways of passing data:
---Passing data automatically using system fields
---Using statements in the program to fetch data
---Passing list attributes

How can you manipulate the presentation and attributes of interactive lists?
---Scrolling through Interactive Lists.
---Setting the Cursor from within the Program.
---Modifying List Lines.

How to call other programs?
Report Transaction
Call and return SUBMIT AND RETURN CALL TRANSACTION
Call without return SUBMIT LEAVE TO TRANSACTION

You can use these statements in any ABAP/4 program.

What will exactly the hide statement do?
For displaying the details on secondary lists requires that you have previously stored the contents of the selected line from within the program. To do this, ABAP/4 provides the HIDE statement. This statement stores the current field contents for the current list line. When calling a secondary list from a list line for which the HIDE fields are stored, the system fills the stored values back into the variables in the program. In the program code, insert the HIDE statement directly after the WRITE statement for the current line. Interactive lists provide the user with the so-called ‘INTERACTIVE REPORTING’ facility. For background processing the only possible method of picking the relevant data is through ‘NON INTERACTIVE REPORT’ . After starting a background job, there is no way of influencing the program. But whereas for dialog sessions there are no such restrictions.

How many lists can a program can produce?
Each program can produce up to 21 lists: one basic list and 20 secondary lists. If the user creates a list on the next level (that is, SY-LSIND increases), the system stores the previous list and displays the new one. Only one list is active, and that is always the most recently created list.

QTP Interview Questions

Q01: What is QTPro? What is Quick Test Pro? What is Quick Test Professional?

Mercury QuickTest Professional™ provides the industry’s best solution for functional test and regression test automation - addressing every major software application and environment. This next-generation automated testing solution deploys the concept of Keyword-driven testing to radically simplify test creation and maintenance. Unique to QuickTest Professional’s Keyword-driven approach, test automation experts have full access to the underlying test and object properties, via an integrated scripting and debugging environment that is round-trip synchronized with the Keyword View.QuickTest Professional satisfies the needs of both technical and non-technical users. It enables you to deploy higher-quality applications faster, cheaper, and with less risk. It works hand-in-hand with Mercury Business Process Testing™ to bring non-technical subject matter experts into the quality process in a meaningful way. Plus, it empowers the entire testing team to create sophisticated test suites with minimal training.The deployment of Mercury QuickTest Professional is optimized through the use of Mercury best practices. Mercury best practices cover all aspects of deployment, including product installation and operation, organizational design, process implementation, continual process improvement and measurement of return on investment (ROI). Throughout your implementation Mercury applies these best practices to your specific situation, creating world-class procedures for you that drive long-term success.source

Q02: What's New in QuickTest Professional 8.2?
· Keyword View: Lets you easily build and maintain tests without writing VBScripts.
· Auto-Documentation: Provides improved test clarity and the ability to view test steps in plain English.
· Step Generator: Allows you to quickly insert custom-built functions into your tests.
· Mercury Business Process Testing: Enhanced integration with BPT -- Business Components, Scripted Components, and Application Areas.
· Enhanced Expert View: Provides greater efficiency when generalizing test components.
· Action Parameters: Allows you to generalize testing actions for greater reusability.
· Data Parameters: You can now specify test or action parameters to pass values into and from your test, and between actions in your test.
· Open XML Report Format for Test Results: Test results are now stored in an open XML format, enabling you to easily customize the reports according to your own requirements, and to integrate the test result information with other applications.
· Unicode Support: Lets you test global deployments of your enterprise applications.
· Function Definition Generator: You can use the new Function Definition Generator to generate definitions for user-defined functions, add header information to them, and register functions to a test object.

Q03: Explain QTP Testing process?

The QuickTest testing process consists of 7 main phases:Create your test planPrior to automating there should be a detailed description of the test including the exact steps to follow, data to be input, and all items to be verified by the test. The verification information should include both data validations and existence or state verifications of objects in the application.
Recording a session on your applicationAs you navigate through your application, QuickTest graphically displays each step you perform in the form of a collapsible icon-based test tree. A step is any user action that causes or makes a change in your site, such as clicking a link or image, or entering data in a form.
Enhancing your testInserting checkpoints into your test lets you search for a specific value of a page, object or text string, which helps you identify whether or not your application is functioning correctly.NOTE: Checkpoints can be added to a test as you record it or after the fact via the Active Screen. It is much easier and faster to add the checkpoints during the recording process.Broadening the scope of your test by replacing fixed values with parameters lets you check how your application performs the same operations with multiple sets of data.Adding logic and conditional statements to your test enables you to add sophisticated checks to your test.Debugging your testIf changes were made to the script, you need to debug it to check that it operates smoothly and without interruption.
Running your test on a new version of your applicationYou run a test to check the behavior of your application. While running, QuickTest connects to your application and performs each step in your test.Analyzing the test resultsYou examine the test results to pinpoint defects in your application.Reporting defectsAs you encounter failures in the application when analyzing test results, you will create defect reports in Defect Reporting Tool.

Q04: How Does Run time data (Parameterization) is handled in QTP?
You can then enter test data into the Data Table, an integratedspreadsheet with the full functionality of Excel, to manipulate datasets and create multiple test iterations, without programming, toexpand test case coverage. Data can be typed in or imported fromdatabases, spreadsheets, or text files.

Q05: What is keyword view and Expert view in QTP?

QuickTest’s Keyword Driven approach, test automation expertshave full access to the underlying test and object properties, via anintegrated scripting and debugging environment that is round-tripsynchronized with the Keyword View.Advanced testers can view and edit their tests in the Expert View,which reveals the underlying industry-standard VBScript thatQuickTest Professional automatically generates. Any changesmade in the Expert View are automatically synchronized with theKeyword View.

Q06: Explain about the Test Fusion Report of QTP?

Once a tester has run a test, a TestFusion report displays allaspects of the test run: a high-level results overview, an expandableTree View of the test specifying exactly where application failuresoccurred, the test data used, application screen shots for every stepthat highlight any discrepancies, and detailed explanations of eachcheckpoint pass and failure. By combining TestFusion reports withQuickTest Professional, you can share reports across an entire QAand development team.

Q07: To which environments does QTP supports?

QuickTest Professional supports functional testing of all enterprise environments, including Windows, Web, .NET, Java/J2EE, SAP,Siebel, Oracle, PeopleSoft, Visual Basic, ActiveX, mainframe terminal emulators, and Web services.




Q08: What is QTP or Quick Test Pro?

QuickTest is a graphical interface record-playback automation tool. It is able to work with any web, java or windows client application. Quick Test enables you to test standard web objects and ActiveX controls. In addition to these environments, QuickTest Professional also enables you to test Java applets and applications and multimedia objects on Applications as well as standard Windows applications, Visual Basic 6 applications and .NET framework applications.

Q09: Explain the QTP Tool interface?

QTP Tool interface contains the following key elements:Title bardisplaying the name of the currently open testMenu bardisplaying menus of QuickTest commandsFile toolbarcontaining buttons to assist you in managing testsTest toolbarcontaining buttons used while creating and maintaining testsDebug toolbarcontaining buttons used while debugging tests.Note: The Debug toolbar is not displayed when you open QuickTest for the first time. You can display the Debug toolbar by choosing View > Toolbars > Debug. Note that this tutorial does not describe how to debug a test. For additional information, refer to the QuickTest Professional User's Guide.Action toolbarcontaining buttons and a list of actions, enabling you to view the details of an individual action or the entire test flow.Note: The Action toolbar is not displayed when you open QuickTest for the first time. You can display the Action toolbar by choosing View > Toolbars > Action. If you insert a reusable or external action in a test, the Action toolbar is displayed automatically. For additional information, refer to the QuickTest Professional User's Guide.Test panecontaining two tabs to view your test-the Tree View and the Expert ViewTest Details panecontaining the Active ScreenData Tablecontaining two tabs, Global and Action, to assist you in parameterizing your test
Debug Viewer panecontaining three tabs to assist you in debugging your test-Watch Expressions, Variables, and Command. (The Debug Viewer pane can be opened only when a test run pauses at a breakpoint.)Status bardisplaying the status of the test

Q10: How QTP recognizes Objects in AUT?

QuickTest stores the definitions for application objects in a file called the Object Repository. As you record your test, QuickTest will add an entry for each item you interact with. Each Object Repository entry will be identified by a logical name (determined automatically by QuickTest), and will contain a set of properties (type, name, etc) that uniquely identify each object.Each line in the QuickTest script will contain a reference to the object that you interacted with, a call to the appropriate method (set, click, check) and any parameters for that method (such as the value for a call to the set method). The references to objects in the script will all be identified by the logical name, rather than any physical, descriptive properties.

Q11: What are the types of Object Repositorys in QTP?

QuickTest has two types of object repositories for storing object information: shared object repositories and action object repositories. You can choose which type of object repository you want to use as the default type for new tests, and you can change the default as necessary for each new test. The object repository per-action mode is the default setting. In this mode, QuickTest automatically creates an object repository file for each action in your test so that you can create and run tests without creating, choosing, or modifying object repository files. However, if you do modify values in an action object repository, your changes do not have any effect on other actions. Therefore, if the same test object exists in more than one action and you modify an object's property values in one action, you may need to make the same change in every action (and any test) containing the object.

Q12: Explain the check points in QTP?

A checkpoint verifies that expected information is displayed in a Application while the test is running. You can add eight types of checkpoints to your test for standard web objects using QTP.
· A page checkpoint checks the characteristics of a Application
· A text checkpoint checks that a text string is displayed in the appropriate place on a Application.
· An object checkpoint (Standard) checks the values of an object on a Application.
· An image checkpoint checks the values of an image on a Application.
· A table checkpoint checks information within a table on a Application
· An Accessibility checkpoint checks the web page for Section 508 compliance.
· An XML checkpoint checks the contents of individual XML data files or XML documents that are part of your Web application.
· A database checkpoint checks the contents of databases accessed by your web site

Q13: In how many ways we can add check points to an application using QTP?

We can add checkpoints while recording the application or we can add after recording is completed using Active screen (Note: To perform the second one The Active screen must be enabled while recording).

Q14: How does QTP identifies the object in the application?

QTP identifies the object in the application by LogicalName and Class.For example: The Edit box is identified by
Logical Name : PSOPTIONS_BSE_TIME20
Class: WebEdit
Q15: If an application name is changes frequently i.e while recording it has name, in this case how does QTP handles?
i.e while recording it has name “Window1” and then while running its “Windows2” in this case how does QTP handles?QTP handles those situations using “Regular Expressions”.

What are the Features & Benefits of Quick Test Pro (QTP 8.0)? - Operates stand-alone, or integrated into Mercury Business Process Testing and Mercury Quality Center. Introduces next-generation zero-configuration Keyword Driven testing technology in Quick Test Professional 8.0 allowing for fast test creation, easier maintenance, and more powerful data-driving capability. Identifies objects with Unique Smart Object Recognition, even if they change from build to build, enabling reliable unattended script execution. Collapses test documentation and test creation to a single step with Au