XAT Mock Test

XAT - Mock Page 1
XAT MOCK TEST
Instructions
1. DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL OF THIS BOOKLET. WAIT FOR THE SIGNAL TO START.
2. This booklet contains 40 pages including the blank ones. Immediately after opening
the booklet, verify that all pages are printed properly.
3. Keep only the Admit Card, pencil eraser and sharpener with you. DO NOT keep with
you books, rulers, slide rules, drawing instruments, calculators (including watch calculators),
pagers, cellular phones, or any other device. These should be left outside the room.
4. This paper has 200 questions. The total time for the test is 120 minutes.
5. The paper is divided into three sections.
Section-I : 80 Questions
Section-II : 60 Questions
Section-III : 60 Questions
6. Directions for answering the questions are given in the test booklet before each group of
questions to which they apply. Read these directions carefully and answer the questions by
darkening the appropriate ovals.
7. Wrong answers carry negative marks. There is only one correct answer for each question.
8. Do the rough work on the test booklet only and NOT on the answer sheet or any other paper.
9. Follow the instructions of the invigilator. Candidates found violating the instructions will be
disqualified.
10. At the end of the test, remain seated. Do not leave the hall till the invigilator announces, "You
may leave now." The invigilator will make the announcement only after collecting the test booklets
and answer sheets from everyone in the room.
ANY CANDIDATE GIVING/SEEKING/RECEIVING ASSISTANCE OR FOUND COPYING
WILL BE IMMEDIATELY DISQUALIFIED.
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Direction for questions 1 to 5: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow with reference
to it.
Retailing — no marks for guessing this is the most active and attractive sector of the last decade. While the
retailing industry itself has been present through history in our country, it is only the recent past that has
witnessed so much dynamism. It’s the latest bandwagon that has witnessed hordes of players leaping onto it.
While international retail store chains have caught the fancy of many travellers abroad, the action was missing
from the Indian business scene, at least till recently.
The emergence of retailing in India has more to do with the increasing purchasing power of buyers, especially
post-liberalisation, increase in product variety, and the increasing economies of scale, with the aid of modern
supply and distribution management solutions.
A definition of retailing is essential in order to be in a position to assess the impact of retailing and its future
potential. The current retailing revolution has been provided an impetus from multiple sources. These
‘revolutionaries’ include many conventional stores upgrading themselves to modern retailing, companies in
competitive environments entering the market directly to ensure exclusive visibility for their products and
professional chain stores coming up to meet the need of the manufacturers who do not fall into either of the
above categories. Attractiveness, accessibility and affordability seem to be the key offerings of the retailing
chain
1. What, according to the passage, has been the most attractive sector in the last decade?
a. Conventional stores b. Product variety c. Retailing d. None of these
2. Retailing was present, but lacked something according to the author. What was it?
a. Charm b. Profitability c. Entrepreneurship d. Dynamism
3. What has led to the rise of retailing in India?
a. Rising population b. Increasing volume of sales
c. Both (a) and (b) d. Increasing buying power of consumers
4. What, according to the passage, does not appear as a feature of the modern face of retailing?
a. Attractiveness b. Affordability c. Accessibility d. Alacrity
5. This article seems to be
a. taken from a newspaper. b. thought-provoking.
c. a figment of the imagination. d. part of a government white paper.
Direction for questions 6 to 15: Fill in the blanks with one of the choices provided below.
6. ____ a business is all about proper decision making.
a. Finishing b. Catching c. Running d. Laundering
Section – I
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7. Any business calls for two ____ functions.
a. critical b. rudimentary c. innate d. None of these
8. Buying and selling, they would say. However, great businesses ____ another important function.
a. comprise b. consist of c. collect d. entail
9. Establishing relationships. Can you or can you not ____ a relation with all the stakeholders, is what is
critical.
a. propagate b. motivate c. cultivate d. instigate
10. The best business managers ____ that business is 90 per cent relations and 10 per cent perspiration.
a. compound b. predict c. propound d. None of these
11. There have been many instances of great business empires that have been ____ by bad management.
a. ruined b. saved c. created d. toppled
12. Dhirubhai Ambani called his company Reliance, since Reliance stood for trust and hence the ____ of
success.
a. cornerstone b. pitfall c. preamble d. meaning
13. Trust takes a lifetime to generate and only one mistake to ____.
a. forget b. squander c. Both (a) and (b) d. vanish
14. Incidents like Enron, Arthur Anderson and WorldCom will ____ the people who have lost their money and
jobs for the rest of their lives.
a. chase b. suffer c. threaten d. haunt
15. Any business is not without a face. It only matters whether the face is ____ or intimidating.
a. intimate b. intimating c. intimation d. None of these
Direction for questions 16 to 25: In each of the following questions, one complete pair of words or phrases
and one term of another pair are given. Complete the second pair by choosing the correct term from the given
choices.
16. Carpenter : Auger :: Surgeon : ____
a. Stethoscope b. Blood c. Scalpel d. Dosage
17. Memorandum : Memoranda :: ____
a. Strata: Stratum b. Insignia : Insigne c. Alumna : Alumnus d. Bacillus : Bacilli
18. ____ : Turpitude :: Courage : Fortitude
a. Depravity b. Turbidity c. Idleness d. Idiocy
19. Implicate : Exculpate :: Complicate : ____
a. Magnify b. Mystify c. Elucidate d. Simplify
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20. Malinger : Illness :: Flatter : ____
a. Sneer b. Exaggeration c. Appreciation d. Respect
21. Thor : Thunder :: Venus : ____
a. Harvest b. Virginity c. Love d. None of these
22. Doggerel : Poet :: ____ : Novelist
a. Caricature b. Parody c. Potboiler d. Tragedy
23. Outfox : Cumming :: Outstrip : ____
a. Thought b. Speed c. Bravery d. Wrath
24. Olfactory : Nose :: ____ : Tongue
a. Guttoral b. Gustatory c. Oral d. Aural
25. Needle Eye : Thread :: Eyelet : ____
a. Binoculars b. Kaleidoscope c. Detergents d. Shoelace
Direction for questions 26 to 30: Read the passage carefully and indicate the meaning of the word underlined
by choosing one of the four alternatives as given.
Some profit by verbal obfuscation, or indeed strive to bring it about. Advertisers are not displeased if the public
thinks of vacuum cleaners as Hoovers or paper tissues as Kleenex. And demagogues frequently believe in the
premise of Newspeak, namely, that to control language is to control thought, and they dream of limiting speech
and thinking to a rude little lexicon of politically correct grunts, just enough for efficient exploitation of those
they rule. But when left to itself the evolution of word meanings is an occult, unpredictable, and unfathomable
process.
26. Obfuscation
a. Confusion b. Cancellation c. Uneasiness d. Constipation
27. Demagogue
a. Ancient b. Corpse c. Manipulator d. Traitor
28. Premise
a. Conclusion b. Inference c. Assumption d. Noteworthy
29. Lexicon
a. Meaning b. Record c. List d. None of these
30. Occult
a. Cult b. Concealed c. Conflict d. Camaraderie
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Direction for questions 31 to 40: In each of the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to
given word.
31. Overt
a. Undercover b. Explicit c. Secretive d. Covert
32. Incorrigible
a. Reformable b. Impossible c. Irrevocable d. Inedible
33. Transparent
a. Clear b. Opaque c. Large d. Open
34. Quotidian
a. Serious b. Expensive c. Unusual d. Neutral
35. Gawky
a. Fragrant b. Melodious c. Dexterous d. Interesting
36. Comely
a. Becoming b. Ugly c. Pretty d. Attractive
37. Infirm
a. Weak b. Deft c. Potent d. Strong
38. Errant
a. Vagabond b. Settled c. Upright d. Arrant
39. Nurture
a. Flourish b. Nervous c. Heavenly d. Destroy
40. Kindle
a. Inspire b. Desire c. Extinguish d. Distinguish
Direction for questions 41 to 50: Read the following passage carefully and indicate the meaning of the words
or phrases underlined by choosing the correct alternative.
The Karnataka government must be gratified that forest brigand Veerappan did not dictate who should be the
state chief minister. Instead, he merely wanted jailed ‘LTTE sympathiser’ Kolathur T. S. Mani to be freed and
made the emissary for securing the release of kidnapped former minister H. Nagappa, the bandit’s hostage for
over three months. Since Veerappan had threatened to behead Mr Nagappa if Mani was not released before
November 30, the government of S. M. Krishna readily capitulated.
Hardly surprising then that the government did not oppose the bail application of Mani, the charges against
whom include supplying arms, ammunition, explosives and other material to Veerappan. With the Krishna
government only too willing to utilise his services as a negotiator, little credence can be given to law and
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parliamentary affairs minister D. B. Chandre Gowda’s assertion that the state had no intention of withdrawing
the cases against Mani. Having secured conditional bail from one court, Mani, who was nabbed by the Special
Task Force last March, is brimming with confidence. He has demanded dropping of the cases against him in
exchange for functioning as an emissary.
Even as Karnataka prepares to revoke the charges against Mani, the Tamil Nadu government has said that he
will be arrested the moment he steps into the state where he is wanted in five cases, including one relating to
the kidnapping of matinee idol Rajkumar. However, the fact that Chennai is helpless should Bangalore send him
as an emissary clearly shows that terrorists and criminals, far from being on the run, are being courted by
governments.
This is not to suggest that Kolathur Mani should be condemned without a fair trial but to underscore that the
Karnataka government, which framed the charges against him, now finds it expedient to drop the cases,
making both actions highly suspect. In 2000, the Krishna government’s decision to release Veerappan’s
associates detained under TADA in exchange for Rajkumar’s release was halted by the Supreme Court.
In its criticism of the hostage-for-detenus deal, the apex court asked the Krishna administration to quit if it
could not govern. If the import of the court’s observations made at that time can be disregarded with impunity
now, obviously the administration’s fear of Veerappan is greater than its respect for the judiciary.
41. Gratified
a. Great b. Thankless c. Content d. Joyous
42. Sympathiser
a. Traitor b. Ally c. Relative d. None of these
43. Credence
a. Acceptance b. Rigidity c. Rebuttal d. Trustworthiness
44. Brimming
a. Scarcity b. Stolid c. Fond d. Awash
45. Emissary
a. Ambassador b. Spy c. Tourist d. Visitor
46. Revoke
a. Provoke b. Invoke c. Repeal d. Retard
47. Matinee
a. Moribund b. Hostile c. Unperturbed d. None of these
48. Condemned
a. Blessed b. Gorgeous c. Convicted d. None of these
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49. Expedient
a. Quick b. Practical c. Difficult d. Unbecoming
50. Impunity
a. Delightful b. Exemption c. Alacrity d. Disgusting
Direction for questions 51 to 55: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow
with reference to it.
South Africa is a country blessed with an abundance of natural resources including fertile farmlands and unique
mineral resources. South African mines are world leaders in the production of diamonds and gold as well as
strategic metals such as platinum. The climate is mild, reportedly resembling the San Francisco bay area
weather more than anywhere in the world.
South Africa was colonised by the English and Dutch in the 17th century. English domination of the Dutch
descendants (known as Boers or Afrikaners) resulted in the Dutch establishing the new colonies of Orange
Free State and Transvaal. The discovery of diamonds in these lands around 1900 resulted in an English
invasion, which sparked the Boer War. Following independence from England, an uneasy power sharing between
the two groups held sway until the 1940s, when the Afrikaner National Party was able to gain a strong majority.
Strategists in the National Party invented apartheid as a means to cement their control over the economic and
social system. Initially, aim of the apartheid was to maintain white domination while extending racial separation.
Starting in the 1960s, a plan of ‘Grand Apartheid’ was executed, emphasising territorial separation and police
repression.
With the enactment of apartheid laws in 1948, racial discrimination was institutionalised. Race laws touched
every aspect of social life, including a prohibition of marriage between non-whites and whites, and the sanctioning
of ‘white-only’ jobs. In 1950, the Population Registration Act required that all South Africans be racially classified
into one of three categories: white, black (African), or coloured (of mixed descent). The coloured category
included major subgroups of Indians and Asians. Classification into these categories was based on appearance,
social acceptance, and descent. For example, a white person was defined as ‘in appearance obviously a white
person or generally accepted as a white person’. A person could not be considered white if one of his or her
parents were non-white. The determination that a person was ‘obviously white’ would take into account ‘his
habits, education, and speech and deportment and demeanour’. A black person would be of or accepted as a
member of an African tribe or race, and a coloured person is one that is not black or white. The department of
home affairs (a government bureau) was responsible for the classification of the citizenry. Non-compliance with
the race laws was dealt with harshly. All blacks were required to carry ‘pass books’ containing fingerprints,
photos and information on access to non-black areas.
In 1951, the Bantu Authorities Act established a basis for ethnic government in African reserves, known as
‘homelands’. These homelands were independent states to which each African was assigned by the government
according to the record of origin (which was frequently inaccurate). All political rights, including voting, held by
an African were restricted to the designated homeland. The idea was that they would be citizens of the homeland,
losing their citizenship in South Africa and any right of involvement with the South African Parliament, which
held complete hegemony over the homelands. From 1976 to 1981, four of these homelands were created,
denationalising nine million South Africans. The homeland administrations refused the nominal independence,
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maintaining pressure for political rights within the country as a whole. Nevertheless, Africans living in the
homelands needed passports to enter South Africa: aliens in their own country.
In 1953, the Public Safety Act and the Criminal Law Amendment Act were passed, which empowered the
government to declare stringent states of emergency and increased penalties for protesting against or supporting
the repeal of a law. The penalties included fines, imprisonment and whippings. In 1960, a large group of blacks
in Sharpeville refused to carry their passes; the government declared a state of emergency. The emergency
lasted for 156 days, leaving 69 people dead and 187 people wounded. Wielding the Public Safety Act and the
Criminal Law Amendment Act, the white regime had no intention of changing the unjust laws of apartheid.
The penalties imposed on political protest, even non-violent protest, were severe. During the states of emergency
that continued intermittently until 1989, anyone could be detained without a hearing by a low-level police official
for up to six months. Thousands of individuals died in custody, frequently after gruesome acts of torture. Those
who were tried were sentenced to death, banished, or imprisoned for life, like Nelson Mandela.
51. This passage seems to be a
a. a page from a book of history. b. a newspaper article.
c. an excerpt from a political treatise. d. None of these
52. What according to the passage led to the Boer War?
a. Discovery of diamonds b. Colonization
c. English invasion d. None of these
53. Which party has been accused of introducing apartheid in South Africa?
a. African National Congress b. Afrikaner National Party
c. The Boer Militia d. Cannot be determined
54. When according to the passage, was apartheid institutionalized?
a. 1948 b. 1947 c. 1949 d. 1950
55. The Bantu Authorities Act led to the creation of
a. native homelands. b. dictatorship.
c. ethnic governments in homelands d. None of these
Direction for questions 56 to 65: Fill in the blanks with one of the choices provided below.
56. ____ had I put my key in the lock than the watchdog sprang at me.
a. Hardly b. Barely c. Scarcely d. No sooner
57. Not since 1942 had Orissa ____ a cyclone of this magnitude.
a. demonstrated b. witnessed c. made d. undergone
58. The cyclone, with wind speeds of around 200 kilometres per hour had uprooted trees, ____ electric
poles, brought down houses and blown away tinned roofs.
a. removed b. uprooted c. thrown d. twisted
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59. “It has been an ____ disaster,” said chief minister Gamang after visiting the worst-hit areas.
a. unfair b. unforgivable c. unmitigated d. unchallenged
60. According to the ____ department officials in the state, the cyclone was not altogether unexpected
during this part of the year.
a. forestry b. forensic c. forecasting d. meteorological
61. On October 18, a devastating cyclone ____ through one of the state’s largest cities, Behrampur in
Ganjam district, and adjoining districts leaving a trail of destruction.
a. ran b. howled c. ripped d. moved
62. But by the time the cyclone had passed through, it had already shown how ____ inadequate the
disaster prediction in the country actually is.
a. Short-sightedly b. pitifully c. scarcely d. awesomely
63. The storm began as a ____ on the meteorology radar screens.
a. warning b. indicator c. cloud d. depression
64. The post-monsoon season routinely ____ such storms at least twice a month.
a. brings b. testifies c. forecasts d. witnesses
65. It was only later that the ____ experts finally realised that it was going to be a severe cyclonic storm.
a. political b. country’s c. international d. weather
Direction for questions 66 to 75: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
Performance appraisal has been one of the most debated management practices for several decades. It has
generated a wide variety of viewpoints. Here I will concentrate, due to paucity of time and space, on appraisal
objectives and its linkages with pay and rewards.
Typically, performance appraisal schemes serve multiple objectives. It is centrally linked to the motivation of
employees. It provides some of the essential components of effective motivational strategies; in particular,
feedback that permits an employee to learn how well he or she is performing; goal or objective-setting that
specifies what the person should be doing; team building that allows the employee to participate along with
peers and his superiors in solving problems that impede his productivity; and monetary incentives that reward
good performance.
Performance appraisal leads to the identification of the training and development needs of the employees. It
also has close links with other important areas of human resource management, in particular with selection,
motivation, goal-congruency and succession planning. Performance data provides relevant information required
for validating selection methods, in assessing whether selection methods are bringing high performers into the
organisation.
Here the organisation must not get trapped into the various pitfalls that come along with administration of
appraisal system. The question that arises here is how to avoid these pitfalls? A necessary condition for the
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effective management of performance appraisal system in any organisation is the need to clarify and communicate
to all concerned the objectives that the system intends to achieve. Everyone in the organisation especially the
key decision makers should be fully aware of precisely what objectives the system of performance appraisal is
expected to achieve, and the priorities within these objectives.
66. What, according to the passage, should be done to make the performance appraisal successful?
a. Clearly communicate the objectives of the appraisal process.
b. Link the appraisal process with remuneration.
c. Use the appraisal simply as a measure of goal congruency.
d. None of these
67. What, according to the passage, should the key decision-makers be aware of?
a. The level of motivation of the employees.
b. The objectives the appraisal system is expected to achieve.
c. Training and development needs of the employees.
d. None of these
68. According to the passage, performance appraisal helps to
a. motivate employees. b. determine goal congruency.
c. plan succession. d. All of these
69. What does ‘paucity’, as used in the context of this passage mean?
a. Availability b. Opportunity c. Scarcity d. None of these
70. There has been a debate on
a. performance appraisal’s moral validity.
b. cost-benefit analysis of the appraisal process.
c. correlation between appraisal and remuneration.
d. Cannot say
71. According to the author, performance appraisal helps the appraised to
a. set goals. b. improve as a team player.
c. monitor problems that impede productivity. d. All of the above
72. According to the passage,
a. appraisal data can provide inputs to validate selection procedures.
b. identify non-conformities in business processes.
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
73. Performance appraisal, according to the passage
a. helps to identify training needs of employees.
b. helps to design training and development programmes.
c. helps to identify candidates for specific training programmes.
d. helps to validate the efficiency of training programmes.
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74. This article seems to have been taken from
a. a student’s research paper.
b. a newspaper report.
c. a business magazine.
d. None of the above
75. What, according to the passage, is performance appraisal a part of?
a. Personnel management
b. Human resource management
c. Strategic human resource management
d. Cannot say
Directions for questions 76 to 80: Select the choice that comes closest to the opposite in meaning to the
word given in the question.
76. Enhance
a. Abate b. Ruin c. Repeat d. Philanthropic
77. Catalyst
a. Defeatist b. Droop c. Brake d. Pessimistic
78. Witless
a. Certain b. Clear c. Brilliant d. Definite
79. Dexterous
a. Suave b. Desperate c. Awkward d. Eclectic
80. Wary
a. Imbalanced b. Ventricle c. Insane d. Trusting
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Section – II
Direction for questions 81 to 85: Find out what comes next in the series.
81. 0, 11, 26, 45, ___.
a. 55 b. 65 c. 68 d. 54
82. 1, 1,
4
3
,
2
1
, 16
5
, ___.
a. 16
7
b. 32
3
c. 16
3
d. None of these
83. 5, 9, 15, 19, ___.
a. 21 b. 23 c. 25 d. None of these
84. 80, 75, 65, 50, ___.
a. 30 b. 70 c. 45 d. None of these
85. 4, 9, 20, 43, 90, ___.
a. 178 b. 180 c. 182 d. 185
Directon for questions 86 to 90: The following questions are related to the construction of words from an
alphabet set comprising of three letters: A, B and C. The words are formed by applying one or more of the
syntactical rules.
I. Rule 1 : If a word ends with letter A, then a new word can be made by adding B at the end.
II. Rule 2 : If ‘x’ is any sequence of letters and Cx is a word, then so is Cxx.
III. Rule 3 : If AAA occurs in any word, then we may drop it and replace it by B.
IV. Rule 4 : If BB occurs in any word, then we may drop it.
It is also given that CA is also a word. Given is an illustration of one of the ways of constructing the words
CBABBAB from CA in six steps.
i. CA (given)
ii. CAA (rule 2)
iii. CAAAA (rule 2)
iv. CBA (rule 3)
v. CBAB (rule 1)
vi. CBABBAB (rule 2)
Note: A step is defined as an addition of one ‘x’ or replacement of one set of AAA by one B.
86. The minimum number of steps required to construct CBBAA is
a. 4 b. 6 c. 5 d. 3
87. The minimum number of steps required to construct BB from CA is
a. 4 b. 3 c. 8 d. Cannot be constructed
88. The minimum number of steps required to construct CBBBA is
a. 11 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12
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89. The number of words in the collection {CBB, CAB, CBA, CAA, BC} that can be constructed from CA is
a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. 2
90. If CB is also a valid word, then the number of constructible words in the collection in question 89 is
a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. 2
91. In a meeting there are five participants, A, B, C, D and E, out of which three are gents and two are ladies.
How many ways can they sit such that there is at least one lady to the side of each gentleman.
a. 12 b. 36 c. 24 d. 48
Direction for questions 92 to 97: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Function A(x, y) is defined only for non-negative integers.
A(x, y) = y + 1 if x = 0
= A(x – 1, y) if x ¹ 0 but y = 0
= A(x – 1, A(x, y –1)) if x ¹ 0 and y ¹ 0
92. A(1, 3) = ?
a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. None of these
93. A(2, 0) = ?
a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. None of these
94. A(1, 2) = ?
a. 3 b. 5 c. 4 d. None of these
95. A( 0, A(1, 1)) is the same as
a. A(1, 1) b. A(0, A(1, 0)) c. A(1, 2) d. None of these
96. A(0, A(1, 0)) is same as
a. A(1, 1) b. A(0, A(1, 1)) c. A(1, 2) d. None of these
97. If A(1, y) = 5, then the value of y is
a. 2 b. 3 c. 0 d. None of these
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Direction for questions 98 to 107: Answer the questions based on the following information.
A large scale workshop has workers in four grades: W1, W2, W3 and W4, woking in various departments. The
table below gives information about three departements: processing, assembly and fabrication. Some workers
from processing and fabrication department also work in assembly department. In the assembly department,
ratio of workers from (processing department) to (exclusively assembly department) to (fabrication department)
is 1 : 2 : 1. This ratio is same for all grades and all skill levels.
54
Department
60 45 145
62 64 64 174
44 44 121
28 32 22 72
24 32 100
31
W1
Grade
W4
W3
W2
36 27 90
Skilled
Unskilled
22 16 14 50
15 12 10 36
Processing Assembly Fabrication Total
98. How many skilled workers work in a department other than the three given?
a. 49 b. 50 c. 52 d. 55
99. How many unskilled workers are there exclusively in the assembly department?
a. 46 b. 42 c. 44 d. 45
100. If 28 more skilled workers are added to W4 grade in assembly department, by how much per cent will
the skilled workers in processing depatment in grade W4 increase? [The same ratios are valid.]
a. 17% b. 19% c. 20% d. 25%
101. In the above case, how many skilled workers from fabrication department in W4 grade will also be
working in assembly department?
a. 15 b. 12 c. 13 d. 11
102. What is the ratio of the total number of workers of W4 grade working only in processing departement to
the number of skilled workers of W2 grade working exclusively in assembly department?
a. 2 : 1 b. 2 : 3 c. 1 : 2 d. 1 : 1
103. By how much per cent do the number of skilled workers from W1 grade working in both processing and
assembly departement exceed the corresponding numbers of the unskilled workers from W4 grade?
a. 500% b. 20% c. 400% d. 25%
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104. What is the total number of workers working exclusively in assembly department?
a. 140 b. 288 c. 200 d.144
105. How many unskilled workers from W2 and W3 grades work only in processing and fabrication departments?
a. 160 b. 288 c. 68 d. 94
106. Approximately what per cent of total employees are those of W1 grade working in fabrication department?
a. 12% b. 8% c. 10% d. 11%
107. Which among the following constitutes the highest number of workers?
a. Skilled workers of W3 grade working only in processing department
b. Skilled workers of W2 grade working only in fabricaiton department
c. Skilled workers of W2 grade working only in processing department
d. Skilled workers of W1 grade working only in assembly department
108. Which of the following divides 1442 + 1692 + 144 × 169?
a. 157 b. 144 c. 313 d. None of these
109. If ax = by = cz ,
b c
a b
= and a, b and c are not equal, then what is the value of
x z
2z
+
?
a.
x
y
b. y
x
c.
z
x
d.
x
z
Direction for questions 110 to 114: Answer the questions based on the following information.
A function f(a, b) is defined for all integers a and b with a > b ³ 0 as follows.
f(a, b) = a, if b = 0.
f(a, b) = f(b, r) if b > r, where r is the remainder when a is divided by b.
110. The value of f(27, 18) is
a. 6 b. 9 c. 12 d. None of these
111. f(6, 4) equals to
a. f(54, 52) b. f(56, 52) c. f(52, 48) d. None of these
112. The value of f(15, 9) is
a. 5 b. 9 c. 1 d. None of these
113. f(44, 15) equals
a. 4 b. 3 c. 5 d. None of these
114. f(9, 3) equals
a. f(54, 50) b. f(54, 51) c. f(54, 48) d. None of these
Page 16 XAT - Mock
Direction for questions 115 to 118: Answer the questions based on the following information.
There are three projects and at least one project is to be selected and the following specified certain conditions
are given for the selection of these projects.
Condition I: Projects 1 and 2 must be selected.
Condition II: Project 1 or 3 must be selected but both cannot be selected.
Condition III: Project 2 can be selected only if project 3 is selected.
115. Ignoring the conditions I, II and III, how many different ways of selecting projects are there?
a. 6 b. 7 c. 4 d. 8
116. The number of selection combinations which satisfy at most one of the three conditions is
a. 3 b. 2 c. 4 d. 5
117. The number of selection combinations which satisfy at least two conditions is
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 2
118. The number of selection combinations which satisfy condition 3 is
a. 4 b. 3 c. 5 d. 6
Direction for questions 119 to 125: Given below are some series of numbers or letters. One member of the
series is missing form the list marked as ‘?’. From the alternatives given for each question, select the correct
one.
119. 1W 2V 3U 5T ? 13R
a. 11Q b. 8X c. 9S d. 8S
120. HV GT FR EP DN ?
a. EM b. CW c. CL d. CM
121. I M Q ?
a. T b. W c. Z d. U
122. 258 130 66 ? 18 10
a. 34 b. 32 c. 36 d. 40
123. D F I M R ?
a. S b. X c. Y d. V
124. 2 3 4 6 8 ? 16 24
a. 14 b. 11 c. 13 d. 12
125. 2 4 8 14 22 ?
a. 28 b. 34 c. 32 d. 38
XAT - Mock Page 17
Direction for questions 126 to 130: Following questions consist of a number of assertions. Each sentence is
an assertion. Some of these assertions may be inconsistent with each other. From these you can form groups
of assertions that are consistent with each other. You have to find the largest number of consistent assertions
in each case.
126. Bricks can be used as pillows. Only soft pillows put insomniacs to sleep. Ashok is not an insomniac.
Bricks are not soft. Ashok sleeps using bricks as pillows. Only insomniacs take sleeping pills. Ashok
takes sleeping pills.
a. 5 b. 6 c. 4 d. None of these
127. All poets are creatures of fantasy. Ram cannot create fantasy. Those who create fantasy are creatures
of fantasy. Those who are creatures of fantasy can create fantasy. Ram is a poet. Ram is a creature of
fantasy.
a. 4 b. 3 c. 5 d. None of these
128. Geeta is a housewife. No housewife can be an office worker. All housewives are cooks. Only good cooks
can cook fried rice. Geeta works in office. Geeta can cook fried rice. Geeta is not a very good cook.
a. 6 b. 5 c. 4 d. None of these
129. You can fool some people all the time but not all. Some people cannot be fooled all the time. Most of the
people can be fooled all the time. All the people can be fooled some time. Some people cannot be fooled
anytime.
a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. None of these
130. All successful managers are dishonest. All dishonest managers are successful. X is a successful
manager if and only if Y is a successful manager. X is an unsuccessful manager and he is a dishonest
manager. X is a successful manager and Y is an unsuccessful manager. Y is an honest manager.
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. None of these.
Direction for questions 131 to 136: Answer the questions based on the following experiment.
Five different balls (1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) are distributed into four different urns (I, II, III, and IV). Each urn may not
receive any ball, may receive exactly one ball, or more than one ball.
131. The number of ways urn II receives exactly two balls is
a. 135 b. 27 c. 270 d. None of these
132. The number of ways in which ball 1 goes to urn I is
a. 256 b. 64 c. 320 d. None of these
133. The total number of ways in which the balls can be distributed in the urns is
a. 625 b. 1,024 c. 120 d. None of these
134. The number of ways in which the balls can be distributed in the urns, such that no urn is empty, is
a. 120 b. 240 c. 119 d. None of these
Page 18 XAT - Mock
135. The number of ways in which the balls can be distributed such that all the balls go into one urn is
a. 4 b. 24 c. 120 d. None of these
136. In the above set of questions, if the number of balls is changed from five to three and the number of urns
is changed from four to three, then in how many ways can the balls be distributed such that only one urn
is empty?
a. 18 b. 9 c. 24 d. None of these
137. Complete the following series.
1, 1, 4, 12, 27, 51, ___.
a. 59 b. 86 c. 107 d. 114
138. What is the difference between the smallest and the largest six-digit numbers formed using the digits
0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5?
a. 440865 b. 419760 c. 502343 d. None of these
Direction for questions 139 and 140: Answer the questions based on the following data.
A survey was conducted by India Today to know how our Memebrs of Parliament (MPs) are conscious of the
population scenario of the country. The data below summarizes the number of children of the Lok Sabha and
the Rajya Sabha members, across different zones of the country.
7
1 2 3 >3
4
12 32 41 96
18 23 18 21 85
43 12 8 96
18 42 16 14 113
3 43 44 62 154
8 12 13 49
11
North
Central
West
Zone
Number of children
South
East
16 1 4 33
Lok
Sabha
members
Rajya
Sabha
members
21 23 5 3 59
6 17 7 7 42
2 21 26 18 68
Total no . of members
139. What per cent of the Rajya Sabha members do not have children at all?
a. 8.75% b. 11.24% c. 11.63% d. 10.35%
140. What is the average number of children of the Lok Sabha members from the south zone?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. Cannot be determined
XAT - Mock Page 19
141. Which of the following Shakespearean plays is parodied in a scene in the Arnold Schwarzenegger flop
Last Action Hero?
a. Romeo and Juliet b. Twelfth Night c. Hamlet d. As You Like It
142. Which of the following element is lightest and has the atomic number 1?
a. Neon b. Helium c. Oxygen d. Hydrogen
143. The ‘patella bone’ is better known as
a. The jaw bone b. The knee cap c. The ear lobe d. The mid nose bone
144. Walker Cup is associated with which of the following sports disciplines?
a. Golf b. Tennis c. Football d. Squash
145. Who wrote the novel Jurassic Park on which the famous Steven Spielberg film was based?
a. Arthur C.Clarke b. John Grisham c. Michael Crichton d. George Hans
146. Who directed the movies Jaws and Schindler’s List ?
a. Steven Spielberg b. M. Knight Shyamalan c. Henry Ogilvy d. Hauz Kahkar
147. Anand dairy farm is in which state of India?
a. Gujarat b. Maharashtra c. Rajasthan d. Orissa
148. Which of the following personality’s song features in Jagjit Singh’s album, Samvedna?
a. Murli Manohar Joshi b. V. P. Singh c. Indira Nooyi d. Atal Behari Vajpayee
149. Justice K.G.Shah Commission of Inquiry was set up for
a. the probe of Godhara carnage in Gujarat. b. the probe of 1999 Mumbai blasts
c. resolving the BODO problem d. resolving the POTO implementation problem
150. Which of the following personalites was addressing the meeting in Jalianwala Bagh on April 13,1919?
a. Dr Saifuddin Kitchlew b. Mahatma Gandhi
c. Lala Lajpat Rai d. None of these
151. Which of the following rulers suffered defeat in the famous Battle of Haldighati?
a. Akbar b. Aurangzeb c. Rana Pratap d. Ibrahim Lodi
152. ‘Allen Solly’, is a brand owned by which of the following group of companies?
a. Madura Coats b. Arvind Mills c. Mafatlal d. Raymonds
153. The controversial MIP-95 Mutual Fund scheme belongs to
a. UTI b. ICICI Prudential Life c. Om Kotak Mahindra d. HDFC Standard Life
154. Which of the following personalities would you associate with Arzoo.com?
a. Rahul Bajaj b. Sabeer Bhatia
c. N.R. Narayana Murthy d. Arun Kumar
155. ‘World Ozone Day’, is celebrated on which of the following days every year?
a. October 7 b. September 16 c. November 15 d. December 5
Section – III
Page 20 XAT - Mock
156. In Einstein’s famous equation E = mc2, if ‘E’ stands for energy and ‘m’ for mass, then what does ‘c’
stand for?
a. Instensity of light b. Speed of light c. Einstein’s constant d. Planck’s constant
157. Which of the following is the largest gland in the human body?
a. Liver b. Spleen c. Lungs d. Bile
158. This gentleman is associated with the propagation of the ‘Theory of heredity’ for the first time. We are
talking about
a. Gregor J. Mendel b. John Schotky c. Hargobind Khorana d. B. Srinivasan
159. What was the code name given for the joint Indian armed force’s, operations which evicted the Pakistanis
and their surrogates from Kargil in 1999 ?
a. Operation Vijay b. Operation Black Hill c. Operation PAKDEF d. Operation Victory
160. ‘Camry’ is the latest brand of car model from which of the following auto giant’s stable?
a. General Motors b.Toyota Motors c.Maruti Suzuki Ltd. d. Hyundai
161. ‘Be the first to know’, assures which of the following satellite channels?
a. CNN b. BBC World c. Fox News d. Star News
162. The muscial ‘West Side Story’ is based on which of the following Shakespearean plays?
a. As You Like It b. Romeo and Juliet c. Julius Caesar d. The Twelfth Night
163. What is the nickname of New York city?
a. Big Ben b. Big Apple c. City of Dreams d. Dominique’s City
164. A closed economy is one which
a. does not trade with the other countries
b. does not possess any means of international transport
c. does not have a coastal line
d. is not a member of the United Nations
165. The traditional economy is characterised by
a. division of labour and specialisation b. organisation of production for self consumption
c. capital intensive process of production d. increasing state intervention
166. Who is the present chief executive officer of General Electric (GE)?
a. Jack Welch b. Waren Buffett c. Jeffery Immelt d. Samuel J. Palmisano
167. Who is the chief executive officer of Microsoft?
a. Bill Gates b. Steve Ballmer c. Steve Wozniak d. Henry Kruger
168. Who is the chief executive officer of IBM?
a. Samuel J. Palmisano b. Phillip Bullock
c. Henry Kissinger d. Scott Mcneally
169. Which of the following company has the punchline ‘We bring good things to life’?
a. Intel b. BPL c. Philips d. General Electric
170. 3001: The Final Odyssey’ has been authored by which of the following personalities?
a. Arthur C. Clarke b. William Golding c. Issac Asimov d. Alvin Toffler
XAT - Mock Page 21
171. Which of the following is the capital city of Morocco?
a. Rabat b. Baku c. Bishkek d. Amman
172. Which river flows through the Grand Canyon in the USA?
a. Thames b. Thebes c. Colorado d. Mississippi
173. Which of the following towns was the birthplace of William Shakespeare?
a. Stratford-upon-Avon b. NewYork c. Thames City d. Viverendi City
174. The only state in India which has more female population than male population is
a. Orissa b. Kerala c. Maharashtra d. Nagaland
175. Which of the following missiles was test fired successfully on January 26, 2002?
a. AGNI - I b. AGNI - II c. AGNI - III d. AGNI - IV
176. Which of the following books is a good source of information on the history of Kashmir?
a. Kalhana’s Rajatarangini b. Kamban’s Raslila
c. Udayan’s Maitri d. Megasthenes’s India
177. India’s first electric car is known as
a. Reva b. Mewa c. Bewa d. Mova
178. The latest model of Barbie doll launched recently by Mattel Toys is
a. The President Barbie b. Spice Barbie
c. Dolly Barbie d. Rose Barbie
179. What is BPL according to Indian finance minister Yashwant Sinha?
a. Below Peer Location b. Bent to Pull Lead c. Below Poverty Line d. Below Poor Line
180. A professor of electrical engineering and computer sciences at MIT, his products have been used in
cars, space shuttles, ships and theatres. Who are we talking about?
a. Ajit Kelkar b. Amar Bose c. Arun Netravali d. Ajit S. Galgotia
181. Which of the following elements, after oxygen, is most abundant on earth’s crust?
a. Copper b. Silicon c. Aluminium d. Silver
182. Albert Einstein was awarded the Nobel Prize for which of his following works?
a. Discovery of X-rays b. Diffraction of light
c. Photoelectric effect d. Effect of light on the mass of a body
183. Who created Spiderman?
a. Stan Lee b. Roger Moore
c. Lee Falk d. Hector Remi Herge
184. Which was the only thing that remained in the Pandora’s Box after it was opened?
a. Love b. Life c. Hope d. Water
185. Beijing recently won the bid to host the 2008 Olympics. Which city achieved the second spot?
a. Chicago b. Toronto c. New Delhi d. New York
186. Which are the three destinations in Orissa known as part of the popular Golden Triangle?
a. Puri, Cuttack, Rourkela b. Puri, Konark and Bhubaneshwar
c. Cuttack, Bhubaneshwar, Puri d. Konark, Digha, Balasore
Page 22 XAT - Mock
187. ‘Gold Riband’, the brand owned by McDowell’s is a type of
a. Whisky b. Beer c. Rum d. None of these
188. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of a modern economy?
a. Predominance of agriculture b. Self-sufficient village economy
c. Diversity in production of commodities d. Static technology
189. Who is the disinvestment minister of India?
a. Arun Shourie b. George Fernandes
c. Ram Jethmalani d. Ghulam Nabi Azad
190. The newly appointed chairman of State Bank of India (SBI) is
a. Janaki Ballabha b. K. V. Kamath c. P. P. Vora d. A. K. Purwar
191. Who is the author of the famous novel Family Matters?
a. Arundhati Roy b. Anita Desai c. Rohniton Mistry d. Salman Rushdie
192. Who is the present president of Confederation of Indian Industry (CII)
a. A.V. Birla b. Ashok Soota c. Sanjiv Goenka d. R.S. Lodha
193. ‘It takes the rough with the smooth’ is used by which of the following car models?
a. TATA Sumo b. TATA Sierra c. TATA Indica d. Toyota Qualis
194. Justine Pasek was in the news for winning the Miss Universe title 2002 from Oxana Fedorora. She hails
from
a. Greece b. Panama c. Venezuela d. South Africa
195. Which of the following represents the number of member countries in WTO as on January 1, 2002?
a. 141 b. 142 c. 143 d. 144
196. Who was the first Indian film star who advertised for Lux soap ?
a. Persis Khambata b. Lila Chitnis c. Nargis d. Madhubala
197. The new chairman of NASSCOM is
a. Phiroz Vandrevala b. Pradeep Guha. c. Arun Netravalli d. Arun Kumar
198. ‘Cannon’ is a term associated with which of the following sports disciplines?
a. Carom b. Billiards c. Snooker d. Golf
199. Lifebuoy soap is brand of which of the following companies?
a. Godrej b. P&G c. HLL d. None of these
200. Light year is a unit of
a. distance b. time c. speed d. velocity
XAT - Mock Page 23
XAT - Mock
Answers & Explanations
Scoring table
Total questions Total attempted Total correct Total wrong Score Time taken
200
1 c 2 d 3 d 4 d 5 a 6 c 7 a 8 d 9 c 10 c
11 a 12 a 13 b 14 d 15 a 16 c 17 d 18 a 19 d 20 c
21 c 22 c 23 b 24 b 25 d 26 a 27 c 28 c 29 d 30 b
31 d 32 a 33 b 34 c 35 c 36 b 37 d 38 b 39 d 40 c
41 c 42 b 43 a 44 d 45 a 46 c 47 d 48 c 49 b 50 b
51 c 52 c 53 b 54 a 55 c 56 d 57 b 58 d 59 c 60 d
61 c 62 b 63 d 64 a 65 d 66 a 67 b 68 d 69 c 70 d
71 d 72 a 73 a 74 c 75 b 76 a 77 c 78 c 79 c 80 d
81 c 82 c 83 c 84 a 85 d 86 b 87 d 88 a 89 c 90 b
91 b 92 b 93 d 94 a 95 c 96 a 97 d 98 a 99 c 100 d
101 a 102 d 103 c 104 d 105 c 106 c 107 b 108 a 109 a 110 b
111 a 112 d 113 d 114 b 115 b 116 b 117 c 118 c 119 d 120 c
121 d 122 a 123 b 124 d 125 c 126 d 127 a 128 d 129 c 130 d
131 c 132 a 133 b 134 b 135 a 136 a 137 b 138 a 139 d 140 d
141 b 142 d 143 b 144 a 145 c 146 a 147 a 148 d 149 a 150 d
151 c 152 a 153 a 154 b 155 b 156 b 157 a 158 a 159 a 160 b
161 a 162 b 163 b 164 a 165 a 166 c 167 b 168 a 169 d 170 a
171 a 172 c 173 a 174 b 175 a 176 a 177 a 178 a 179 c 180 b
181 b 182 c 183 a 184 c 185 b 186 b 187 a 188 c 189 a 190 d
191 c 192 b 193 b 194 b 195 d 196 b 197 d 198 b 199 c 200 a
Page 24 XAT - Mock
1. Refer to the 1st line.
2. Refer to the 2nd sentence.
3. Refer to the paragraph 2.
4. Refer to the last line.
5. A newspaper feature is the most likely option.
6. ‘Running’ is most akin to ‘managing’.
7. The functions here have to be critical otherwise the
business fails.
8. ‘Entail’ here means ‘necessitate’.
9. ‘Cultivate’ means ‘to nurture’.
10. ‘Propound’ means ‘to suggest’.
11. ‘Saved’ and ‘created’ will not fit with ‘bad management’.
‘Toppled’ also won’t fit as we are not talking about
governments here.
12. ‘Cornerstone’ means a basic part.
13. ‘Squander’ means to ‘throw away’.
14. ‘Incidents’ cannot ‘suffer’ or ‘chase’. ‘Threaten’ is also an
unlikely choice.
15. We look for an opposite word to ‘intimidate’.
16. The first word in the word pair is the profession and the
second word is the tool.
17. The singular-plural pair.
18. The second word in the pair is a characteristic of the
first word in the pair.
19. ‘Implicate’ is an antonym of ‘exculpate’, ‘complicate’ is an
antonym of ‘simplify’.
20. Malinger is to feign illness just as flattery is to appreciate
in an insincere manner.
21. ‘Thor’ is the ‘God of Thunder’ as ‘Venus’ is the ‘God of
Love’.
22. Doggerel is poor or trivial poetry as a potboiler is pulp
fiction.
23. You need cunning to outfox someone and you need
speed to outstrip someone.
24. Olfactory pertains to the sense of smell (nose), whereas
gustatory pertains to the sense of taste (tongue).
25. A thread is inserted in the needle eye. Similarly a shoelace
is inserted in an eyelet.
26. To obfuscate means to confuse.
27. A demagogue is a person who wins people’s support by
manipulating them by appealing to their emotions or baser
instincts rather than their reason.
28. A premise here means an assumption.
29. A lexicon is the politician’s glossary of terms or dictionary.
30. Occult here means mysterious, beyond the range of
ordinary knowledge and hence concealed.
31. Overt means to be open about something and covert
means to be secretive.
32. Incorrigible means someone who cannot be corrected
and changed but reformable means someone who can
be reformed and changed.
33. Transparent and opaque are clear antonyms.
34. Quotidian means commonplace daily or usual. So the
opposite is unusual.
35. A gawky person is awkward. A dexterous person is
skilful.
36. A comely person is attractive.
37. An infirm person is weak.
38. An errant person is wayward.
39. Nurture and destroy are antonyms.
40. To kindle is to ignite a fire.
41. Gratified here means thankful, and hence pleased or
content.
42. A sympathizer is a person who subscribes to the views
of the LTTE and is hence an ally.
43. Credence here means to give weightage or believability
to Gowda’s assertion.
44. Brimming means to be full of something.
45. An emissary is an envoy.
46. To revoke means to cancel a law.
47. Matinee refers to the movies, specifically to an afternoon
show.
48. Condemned means convicted or punished.
49. ‘Expedient’ means ‘convenient’ or practical rather than
based on principles or moral grounds.
50. Impunity means to be free or exempt from blame.
51. The passage is from a political essay or a thesis.
52. Refer to paragraph 2.
XAT - Mock Page 25
53. Refer to paragraph 2.
54. Refer to paragraph 3.
55. Refer to paragraph 4.
56. ‘Hardly/Scarcely/Barely’ are ungrammatical with ‘than’.
57. ‘Demonstrated’, ‘made’ and ‘undergone’ do not fit in the
sentence at all.
58. A pole can be bent or twisted, not ‘removed’, or ‘thrown’
or ‘uprooted’ by a cyclone.
59. ‘Unmitigated’ means that the disaster was complete,
nothing or no one was spared.
60. The meteorological department does weather
forecasting.
61. ‘Ripped through’ means that the cyclone tore the city
apart, leaving a trail of destruction.
62. ‘Pitifully’ means that the disaster prediction system was
woefully inadequate.
63. A depression is a mass of air that has a low pressure
and that often causes rain.
64. The season brings storms or showers.
65. The weather experts can realize the development.
66. Refer to the last paragraph.
67. Refer to the last paragraph.
68. Refer to paragraph 3.
69. ‘Paucity’ in paragraph 1 talks of lack of time and space
for writing this article.
70. Refer to paragraph 1.
71. All the options have been mentioned.
72. Refer to paragraph 3.
73. Refer to paragraph 3.
74. A research paper would not have ‘paucity of time and
space’ while an article would.
75. Refer to paragraph 3.
76. Enhance is to increase, whereas abate is to decrease in
intensity or the like.
77. Catalyst tends to speed up things, whereas a brake
tends to reduce speed.
78. Witless is foolish and hence the opposite of brilliant.
79. Dexterous is skillful, and not awkward.
80. Wary is cautious, careful (because suspicious) and the
opposite of trusting.
81.
0
11 15 19 23
11 26 45 68
Difference of consecutive terms are in AP.
82. 64
12
,
32
10
,
16
8
,
8
6
,
4
4
,
2
2
83.
5
4 6 4 6
9 15 19 25
With alternate difference of 4 and 6 respectively.
84.
80
5 10 15 20
75 65 50 30
Difference are in AP.
85.
First order difference
Second order difference
4
5
6
47 95
48
23
24
11
12
9 20 43 90 185
86. 1. CA
2. CAA
3. CAAAA
4. CAAAAAAAA
5. CBAAAAA
6. CBBAA
87. It is never possible to make C disappear completely. So
BB cannot be constructed.
88. 1. CA
2. CAA
3. CAAAA
4. CAAAAAAAA
5.CAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAA
6. CBAAAAAAAAAAAAA
7. CBBAAAAAAAAAA
8. CBBBAAAAAAA
9. CBBBBAAAA
10. CBBBBBA (Rule 3)
11. CBBBA (Rule 4)
89. The words that can be formed are:
CA
CAA (Rule 2)
CBA (CAA ® CAAAA ® CBA)
CAB (CA ® CAB)
90. The valid words possible are:
CBB (Rule 2)
CAB (As we take CA from question 9)
CBA
CAA
Page 26 XAT - Mock
91. There are three possible ways of arranging the given
condition.
(i) Gents L Gents L Gents
So 3! × 2 = 12 ways.
(ii) Gents L Gents Gents L
3! × 2 = 12 ways.
Total = 12 + 12 = 24 ways.
(iii) The mirror image of the arrangement of (ii), i.e. L Gents
Gents L Gents. these are 12 ways.
So total 12 + 12 + 12 = 36
92. A(1, 3) = A(0, A(1, 2))
A(1, 2) = A(0, A(1, 1))
A(1, 1) = A(0, A(1, 0))
A(1, 0) = A(0, 0) = 1
Re substituting, A(1, 1) = A(0, 1) = 2
A(1, 2) = A(0, 2) = 3
A(1, 3) = A(0, 3) = 4
93. A(2, 0) = A(1, 0) = A(0, 0) = 0 + 1= 1
94. A(1, 2) = 3, as seen in solution of Q. No. 92.
95. A(1, 2) = A(0, A(1, 1)) by definition.
96. A(1, 1) = A(0, A(1, 0)) [By using the third condition of the
function definition]
97. A(1, y) = A(0, y) = y + 1 = 5, so y = 4.
Questions 98 to 107:
Skilled:
39 15 30 15 30 46 16 32 16 48
W1 P A F W2 P A F
33 11 22 11 33 20 8 16 14
W3 P A F W4 P A F
8
Total = 129 Total = 158
Total = 110 Total = 66
Unskilled:
20 6 12 26 22 9 18 18
W1 P A F W2 P A F
18 4 8 10 12 3 6 7
W3 P A F W4 P A F
6 9
4 3
98. Number of skilled workers in other departments
= [145 + 174 + 121 + 72] – [129 + 158 + 110 + 66] = 49
99. Number of unskilled workers in assembly
= 12 + 18 + 8 + 6 = 44
100. The number of people in the processing department
would increase by 28 7
4
1
´ =
Hence, increase in W4 grade skilled workers is
100 25%
28
7
´ = .
101. The final intersection of fabrication and assembly
department = 8 + 7 = 15
102. From the set representation we have the required ratio
is (12 + 20) : 32 Þ 1 : 1.
103. Skilled from W1 = 15
Unskilled from W4 = 3
Hence, the skilled in W1 exceed the unskilled from W4 by
400%.
104. Use the set representation answer is
[30 + 32 + 22 + 16 + 12 + 18 + 8 + 6] = 144
105. Use the set representation answer is
= (22 + 18) + (18 + 10) = 68
106. Use the set representation
Total number of employees
= [145 +174 + 121 + 72] + [100 + 90 + 50 + 36]
= 512 + 276 = 788
Number of workers of grade W1 in fabrication
department = 35 + 32 = 77
Approximate percentage = 10%.
107. Compare using the sets, we get the answer as (b).
108. 1442 + 1692 + (144 × 169)
124 + 134 + (122 × 132)
= {122 + (12 × 13) + 132}{122 –(12 × 13) + 132}
= 469 × 157
This is as per the formula
a4 + b4 + a2b2 = (a2 + ab + b2)(a2 – ab + b2).
109. Let us assume
ax = by = cz = a
\a = a1/ x, b = a1/ y and c = a1/ z
So b
c
a
b
=
Þ y
1
z
1
x
1
y
1
- -
a = a
Þ y
1
z
1
x
1
y
1
- = -
x
y
x z
2z
y
2
xz
x z
=
+
= Þ
+
Þ
XAT - Mock Page 27
110. f(27, 28) = f(18, 9) = (9, 0) = 9
111. f(6, 4) = f(4, 2) = f(2, 0) = 2
f(54, 52) = f(52, 2) = f(2, 0) = 2
112. f(15, 9) = f(9, 6) = f(6, 3) = f(3, 0) = 3
113. f(44, 15) = f(15, 14) = f(14, 1) = f(1, 0) = 1
114. f(9, 3) = f(3, 0) = 3 = f(51, 3) = f(3, 0) = 3
115. {23 – 1}
Every project has two ways, either selection or rejection.
So total number of ways are 2 × 2 × 2 = 8.
Subtracting one way (the case of all getting rejected),
we have 8 – 1 = 7 ways.
116. Two selections, i.e. (1, 3) and (2) meet at most one
condition.
117. All the remaining 5 ways other than the possibilities in
Q. 116, i.e. (1, 2, 3), (1, 2), (2, 3), (1), (3).
118. The projects are (2, 3), (1, 2, 3), (1, 3), (1) and (3).
119. The digit is changing as in Fibonacci series
1, 1 + 1 = 2, 2 + 1 = 3, 3 + 2 = 5, 5 + 3 = 8, 8 + 5 = 13
and letters attached are in decreasing order,
i.e. W, V, U, T, S, R
\ 8S
120. First letter is in decreasing sequence
H G F E D C
V T R P N L
Second letter is in alternate decreasing series.
121. Two consecutive letters have a difference of three
letters between them.
I JKL M NOP Q RST U
122.
258
128 64 32 16 8
130 66 ? 18 10
34
123. Between two consecutive letters the number of letters
are in AP.
D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X
124.
2
1 1 2 2 4 4 8
3 4 6 8
12
? 16 24
125.
2
2 4 6 8 10
4 8 14 22 ? 32
126. No three statements are consistent.
127. All poets are creatures of fantasy. Ram is a poet. Ram
is a creature of fantasy. Those who are creatures of
fantasy can create fantasy.
128. None of the given answer choices are applicable,
though independently, two assertions can be
consistent to one another.
129. First three assertions are logically consistent. The
fourth and the fifth ones are not. Converting to the
assertions to a set of five, we have the following.
Assertion Example
1. ® Some A are B and some A are not B.
2. ® Some A are not B. (Some A are B.)
3. ® Some A are B.
4. ® All A are C.
5. ® Some A are D.
From the above analogues example, we can see that
1, 2 and 3 are consistent while 4 and 5 are not linked
to the first three.
130. ‘Unsuccessful’ and ‘dishonest’ are not linked. Similarly,
honest is linked neither with unsuccessful nor
successful. So none of the answer choices a, b, c
fits in.
131. Two balls out of five balls can be selected in 2
5C
ways = 10 ways.
Remaining three different balls can be distributed in
three different boxes in 33, i.e. = 27 ways.
So total number of ways = 27 × 10 = 270.
132. After putting ball 1 in urn I, the remaining four balls can
be distributed in four urns, in 44 ways = 256.
133. Every ball can be put in four ways. It can go to any of
the four urns. This means for each ball, there are four
ways.
\ Total ways = 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 = 45 = 1024 ways.
134. The only possible way of distributing all five balls into
four urns is that one urn has two balls and other three
have one-one ball each. Two balls out of 5 can be
selected in 2
5C ways. These 2, 1, 1, 1 can be
distributed into 4 urns in 4! ways.
Total ways = 2
4!´ 5C = 240 ways.
135. All balls can go to any of the four urns.
\ Four ways.
136. Two out of three urns can be selected in 2
3C ways.
Both urns should be filled. So there is only one way of
dividing the balls into two groups (2 balls and 1 ball);
two balls can be selected in 2
3C ways and can be
distributed in two ways.
\ Total ways of distribution = C C2 2 18 ways
3
2
3 ´ ´ =
Page 28 XAT - Mock
137. The series increases by addition of (x2 – 1) to the
previous number, where x = 1, 2, 3, ....
1 + (12 – 1) = 1
1 + (22 –1) = 4
4 + (32 – 1) = 12
12 + (42 – 1) = 27
27 + (52 –1) = 51
51 + (62 – 1) = 86
138. Largest six-digit number using the given digits = 543210.
Smallest six-digit number using the given digits = 102345.
The difference = 440865.
139. 12(N) + 1(E) + 7(S) + 5(W) + 1(C) = 26
10.35%
251
26
=
140. Number of members having more than three children is
not known.