Friday, April 25, 2008

Hotel Management Questions 2

Numerical Ability
1. 54.327 × 357.2 × 0.0057 is the same as
(a) 54327 × 3572 × 0.0000057 (b) 5.4327 × 3.572 × 0.57
(c) 5.4327 × 3.572 × 5.7 (d) None of these
2. If 185 × 28 = 5180, 51.8 ÷ 18.5 is equal to
(a) 2.8 (b) 28 (c) 280 (d) None of these
3. The sum of the first 63 terms of the series
5 – 3 + 2 – 5 + 3 – 2 + 5 – 3 + 2 – 5…… is
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) None of these
4. 70% of 280 is same as
(A) 7% of 28 (b) 25% of 140 (c) 40% of 490 (d) None of these
5. If the angles of a triangle be in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3, the sides will be in the ratio
(a) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 3 : 2 (c) 3 : 2 : 2 (d) None of these
6. The value of 8-25 – 8-26 is
(a) 7 × 8-25 (b) 8 × 8-26 (c) 7 × 8-26 (d) None of these
7. An iron cube of side 10 cm is hammered into a rectangular sheet of thickness 0.5 cm. If the sides of
the sheet be in the ratio 1 : 5, the sides are
(a) 10 cm, 50 cm (b) 20 cm, 100 cm
(c) 40 cm, 200 cm (d) None of these
8. The base of a right prism is a pentagon whose sides are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 2 : 1 : 2 and its height
is 10 cm. If the longest side of the base be 6 cm. the volume of the prism is
(a) 270 cm3 (b) 360 cm3 (c) 540 cm3 (d) None of these
9. If x is an even number then x4n, where n is a positive integer, will always have
(a) Zero in the unit place. (b) 6 in the unit place.
(c) either 0 or 6 in the unit place. (d) None of these
10. The base of a solid cylinder of height 10 cm is a semi–circle of radius 7 cm. its total surface is
(a) 154 cm2 (b) 176 cm2 (c) 514 cm2 (d) None of these
11. If two numbers are respectively 28% and 70% of a third number, what percentage is the first number
of the second number?
(a) 15% (b) 30% (c) 35% (d) None of these
12. By selling a transistor for Rs. 572 a shopkeeper earns a profit equivalent to 30% of the cost price of
the transistor. What is the cost price of the transistor?
(a) Rs.340 (b) Rs.400 (c) Rs.440 (d) None of these
13. A, B and c together can finish a work in 10 days. A alone can do it in 24 days while B can do it in 30
days. A and B work together for 12 days and leave the rest of the work to be completed by C. How
many days will C take to do the rest of the work?
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) None of these
14. The cube of a number is 8 times the cube of another number. If the sum of the cubes of the numbers
be 243, the difference of the numbers is
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) None of these
15. The smallest value of n for which 2n + 1 is NOT a prime number is
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) None of these
16. If mn. nm = 800, the value of n/m is
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/5 (c) 4/5 (d) None of these
17. If one number is 80% of the other and 4 times the sum of their squares is 656, the numbers are
(a) 4, 5 (b) 8, 10 (c) 16, 20 (d) None of these
18. The sum of two numbers is 28/25 of the first number. The second number is……. of the first.
(a) 12% (b) 14% (c) 16% (d) None of these
19. The number prime factors of (3.5)12 (2.7)10 (10)25 is
(a) 47 (b) 60 (c) 72 (d) None of these
20. A cistern can be filled by a tap in 4 hours while it can be emptied by another tap in 9 hours. If both the
taps are opened simultaneously, after how much time will the cistern get filled?
(a) 4.5 hr (b) 5 hr (c) 7.2 hr (d) None of these
21. A family consists of grand-children. The average age of the grand-parents is 67 years, that of the
parents 35 year and of the grand-children it is 6 year. What is the average age of the family?
28 4 (b)
315 (c)
32 1 (d) None of these
22. The value of
75.458 40.374
(67.542)2 (32.458)2

(a) 1 (b) 10 (c) 100 (d) None of these
23. The value of (1296)0.75 (36)-1 is
(a) 36 (b) 196 (c) 1176 (d) None of these
24. If 8.5 -
⎭ ⎬ ⎫
⎩ ⎨ ⎧
÷ × ⎟⎠

− ⎛ + 2.8 ÷ x 4.25 (0.2)2
7 1
5 1 = 306, the value of x is
(a) 1.75 (b) 3.5 (c) 7 (d) None of these
25. On a sum of money the simple interest for two years is Rs. 660 while the compound interest being the
same in both the cases. The rate of interest is
(a) 10% (b) 10.5% (c) 12% (d) None of these
26. Two trains running in opposite directions cross a man standing on the platform in 27 sec and 17 sec
respectively and they crossed each other in 23 sec. The ratio of their speed is
(a) 3 : 2 (b) 3 : 4 (c) 1 : 3 (d) None of these
27. If the number 357*25* is divisible by both 3 and 5, the missing digits in the unit place and the
thousandth place respectively are
(a) 0, 6 (b) 5, 1 (c) 5, 4 (d) None of these
28. If x*y =
1/ 3 1/ 3
2 / 3 2 / 3
x y
(x y )(x y)
− −
, then 0.027 *0.008 is
(a) 0.19 (b) 0.019 (c) 0.0019 (d) None of these
29. A, B and C center into a partnership. They invest Rs.40, 000, Rs.80, 000 and Rs.1, 20, 000
respectively. At the end of the first year B withdraws Rs. 40, 000 while at the end of the second year
C withdraws Rs.80, 000. in what ratio will the profit be shared at the end of three years?
(a) 2 : 3 : 5 (b) 3 : 4 : 7 (c) 4 : 5: 9 (d) None of these
30. How many figures are required for numbering a book having 350 pages?
(a) 350 (b) 750 (c) 942 (d) None of these
Scientific Aptitude
31. Which of the following groups includes diseases caused by bacteria?
(a) Pneumonia, tetanus and diabetes (b) Pneumonia, tetanus and scurvy
(c) Typhoid, measles and cholera (d) Typhoid, pneumonia and tuberculosis.
32. What would happen if the number of tigers is increased in a balanced forest community?
(a) Better balance (b) Decrease in plant biomass
(c) Decrease in deer population (d) Increase in the population of primary carnivores.
33. Which of the following stages of nuclear division involves replication of DNA molecules in order to
duplicate chromosomes?
(a) Metaphase (b) Prophase (c) Anaphase (d) Inter phase.
34. Genetic variation in the progeny is brought about usually by
(a) Crossing over. (b) Vegetative propagation
(c) Mitotic division (d) asexual multiplication.
35. Which of the following energy conversions takes place to carry out the process of photosynthesis?
(a) Light energy to biochemical (b) Light energy to thermal
(c) Thermal to biochemical (d) Heat energy to kinetic energy.
36. How many kilojoules energy per hour per kg of body weight is normally used by a person while
(a) 4.62 kj (b) 6.47kj (c) 7.39 kj (d) 8.32 kj
37. Which of the following pairs shows only fat soluble vitamins?
(a) Riboflavin and retinol (b) Calciferol and retinol
(c) Riboflavin and tocoferol (d) Ascorbic acid and calciferol.
38. Which of the following pairs shows only fat soluble vitamins?
(a) Vitamin D (b) Vitamin A (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin B1
39. Which pair of diseases may result if a baby is deficient in protein?
(a) Kwashiorkor and pellagra (b) Kwashiorkor and rickets
(c) Kwashiorkor and marasmus (d) Marasmus and Osteomalacea.
40. Which two fumigants are used for controlling pests in stored grains?
(a) Pyrethrum and ethylene dibromide (b) Aluminum phosphide and malathion
(c) Ethylene dobromide and zinc phosphide (d) Ethylene dibromide and aluminum phosphide
41. Which of the following gases may cause acid rain in an industrial area?
(a) CO2 (b) CO (c) S)2 (d) CH4
42. Which of the following pairs of organisms represents host-parasite relationship?
(a) Tiger and deer (b) Man and lice
(c) Man and elephant (d) Pea plant and Rhizobium
43. Mosquitoes are not used to live in oceans because their body cannot tolerate
(a) cold water (b) hot water (c) salt water. (d) fresh water
44. Which term is used for the individuals of a species living together in a locality?
(a) Community (b) Population (c) Ecosystem (d) Biosphere
45. Which two elements are used to absorb neutrons to control the chain reaction during nuclear fission?
(a) Boron and cadmium (b) Boron and plutonium
(c) Cadmium and uranium (d) Uranium and boron
46. Which among the following four planets is the smallest in size?
(a) Venus (b) Mars (c) Earth (d) Saturn
47. Which of the following four gases is in the maximum proportion in the air?
(a) O2 (b) N2 (c) CO2 (d) SO2
48. In which of the following situations is the friction exerted by the road disadvantageous?
(a) When a child walks on the road. (b) When a bus driver stops his bus.
(c) When a car intends to slow down its speed (d) when a car intends to increase its speed.
49. If the distance between two bodies is doubled, how many times would become their attraction force?
(a) Four times (b) Doubled (c) One-half (d) One-fourth
50. On which of the following quantities does the time period of a simple pendulum depend?
(a) Mass (b) Energy (c) Length (d) Amplitude
51. Which of the following quantities is transferred from one place to another by waves?
(a) Energy (b) Wavelength (c) Velocity (d) Mass
52. Which kind of energy is possessed by the water filled in the reservoir of a dam?
(a) Potential energy (b) Kinetic energy (c) electric energy (d) Light energy
53. Which of the following substances is the most important constituent of biogas?
(a) H2S (b) CO2 (c) CH4 (d) H2
54. Which of the following elements are the main constituents of bronze?
(a) Nickel and chromium (b) Lead and tin
(c) Copper and Zinc (d) Copper and tin.
55. When chlorine is passed over solid slaked lime, which of the following substances is formed?
(a) Plaster of Paris (b) Bleaching Powder
(c) Common salt (d) Washing soda.
56. Which of the following substances makes nylon?
(a) Polymide fibre (b) Polyester fibre (c) Cellulose fibre (d) Polyethylene fibre
57. Which of the following characteristics is common in both Cathode-rays and X-rays?
(a) Both are positively-charged (b) Both are negatively-charged
(c) Both travel in a straight line (c) Both do not get deflected in an electric fields
58. What is the molecular mass of water?
(a) 34 (b) 33 (c) 20 (d) 18
59. Which of the following substances is made of only one type of molecules?
(a) carbon-dioxide (b) Air (c) Lemonade (d) Vinegar.
60. Which of the following elements possesses electronic configuration 2, 8, 1 in its neutral atoms?
(a) Carbon (b) Oxygen (c) Sodium (d) Sulphur
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (c)
7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (d) 11. (d) 12. (c)
13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (a)
19. (d) 20. (c) 21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (b)
25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (a)
37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (d) 41. (c) 42. (b)
43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (a) 46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (d)
49. (d) 50. (c) 51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (c) 54. (d)
55. (b) 56. (a) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (a) 60. (c)

Hotel Management Questions

Numerical Ability
1. 0.0025 × 2.25 × 0.0001 =?
(a) 0.075 (b) 0.0075 (c) 0.000075 (d) None of these
2. In a competitive examination 5% of the applicants were found ineligible and 85% of the eligible
candidates belonged to the general category. If 4,275 eligible candidates belonged to other categories,
how many candidates applied for the examination?
(a) 30,000 (b) 35,000 (c) 37,000 (d) None of these
3. A commission agent allows a rebate of 2% to an investor while the company pays an interest of 15% on
the investment. What rate of interest does the investor actually earn on his investment?
(a) 15
15% (b) 17% (c) 15% (d) None of these
4. Working on an assembly line a woman worker manufactures 15 bases for an instrument while a man
worker fixes 12 super structures per hour. Working eight hours a day how many men and women
respectively are needed to assemble 2400 pieces in a day?
(a) 200, 160 (b) 120, 96 (c) 25, 20 (d) None of these
5. When the sum of two numbers is multiplied by 5 the product is divisible by 15. Which one of the
following pairs of numbers does not satisfy the above condition?
(a) 240, 335 (b) 250, 341 (c) 245, 342 (d) None of these
6. Which one of the following pairs of fractions adds up to a number greater than 5?
, 11
13 (b)
, 8
11 (c)
, 11
7 (d) None of these
7. Three partners shared the profit in a business in the ratio 5 : 7 : 8. They had partnered for 14 months, 8
months and 7 months respectively. What was the ratio of their investments?
(a) 38 : 28 : 21 (b) 5 : 7 : 8 (c) 20 : 49 : 64 (d) None of these
8. The price of a TV set worth Rs. 20,000 is to be paid in 20 installments of Rs. 1,000 each. If the rate of
interest be 6% per annum, and the first installment to paid at the time of purchase the value of the last
installment covering the interest as well will be
(a) Rs. 3,000 (b) Rs. 2,050 (c) Rs. 1,050 (d) None of these
9. A is 30% more efficient than B. How much time will they working together take to complete a job which
A alone could have done in 23 days?
(a) 11 days (b) 13 days (c) 20
3 days (d) None of these
10. A dry–fruit seller mixes three varieties of walnuts costing Rs. 50, Rs. 20 and RS. 30 per kg in the ratio
2 : 4 : 3 in terms of weight and sells the mixture at Rs. 33 per kg. What percentage of profit does he
(a) 8% (b) 9% (c) 10% (d) None of these
11. 5
2 ÷?
5 =2
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) None of these
12. 3 9.261=?
(a) 2.1 (b) 3.1 (c) 4.1 (d) None of these
13. ⎟

⎜ ⎜

121 ÷ ? =0.2
1 (b)
9 (c)
16 (d) None of these
14. The mean proportional of 234 and 104 is
(a) 12 (b) 39 (c) 54 (d) None of these
15. (5)24 (8)16 (25)12 = (10)?
(a) 24 (b) 48 (c) 60 (d) None of these
16. A solid circular cylindrical block of radius 12 cm and height 18 cm is mounted with a conical block of
radius 12 cm and height 5 cm. The total lateral surface of the solid thus formed is
(a) 528 cm2 (b) 1357
5 cm2 (c) 1848 cm2 (d) None of these
17. A sum of Rs. 650 is divided between A and B in such a manner that in every 100 rupees A gets 30
rupees more than B. How much does B get?
(a) Rs. 227.50 (b) Rs. 422.50 (c) Rs. 22.75 (d) None of these
18. When 52416 is divided by 312, the quotient is 168. What will be the quotient when 52.416 is divided by
(a) 3.12 (b) 312 (c) 3120 (d) None of these
19. If a2 + b2 = 45 and b2 + c2 = 40, and if a, b, c are integers, then a and c respectively are
(a) 3, 2 (b) 5, 4 (c) 2, 6 (d) None of these
20. Of four numbers the first is twice the second, the second is one–third of the third and the third is 5 times
the fourth. The average of the numbers is 24.75. The largest of these numbers is
(a) 9 (b) 25 (c) 30 (d) None of these
21. The number of prime factors in 12 11
12 28 16
(14) (21)
(6) (35) (15) is
(a) 56 (b) 66 (c) 112 (d) None of these
22. 2 6.25 ÷ ? = 10–1
(a) 25 (b) 0.25 (c) 0.0025 (d) None of these
23. If 20% of a = b, then b% of 20 is the same as
(a) 20% of a (b) 5% of a (c) 4% of a (d) None of these
24. If 1369 + 0.0615 + x = 37.25, then x is equal to
(a) 10–1 (b) 10–2 (c) 10–3 (d) None of these
25. The sum of the first 20 terms of the series
5 6
6 7
7 8
+… is
(a) 0.16 (b) 1.6 (c) 16 (d) None of these
Answer Key
1(d) 2(a) 3(a) 4(c) 5(c) 6(b) 7(c) 8(d)
9(d) 10(c) 11(a) 12(a) 13(d) 14(d) 15(b) 16(c)
17(a) 18(c) 19(a) 20(d) 21(b) 22(d) 23(c) 24(c)
Scientific Aptitude
26. Which of the following groups includes organs of the same organ–system?
(a) Trachea, Oesophagus, Stomach (b) Pancreas, Lungs, Pharynx
(c) Oesophagus, Rectum, Stomach (d) Stomach, Pancreas, Heart.
27. The desert rat burrows deep in the soil to get
(a) plenty of food and water (b) a dry and airy place
(c) food, water and shelter. (d) a cool and moist place
28 A species is defined as a group of individuals which in nature can
(a) interbreed. (b) live together. (c) roost together. (d) eat similar
29. Which of the following stages of nuclear division involves replication of DNA molecules?
(a) Anaphase (b) Prophase (c) Metaphase (d) Interphase
30. Which of the following compounds possesses molecules having both covalent and ionic bonds?
(a) NaCl (b) NaOH (c) H2O (d) CO2
31. The chemical reaction, A + B 􀃆 C is likely to take place when
(a) C is in a higher energy state than A. (b) C is in a higher energy state than B.
(c) C is in a lower energy state than A + B (d) A + B are in a lower energy state than C.
32. Which of the following factors governs largely the chemical properties of an element?
(a) Number of electrons in the outer most shell. (b) Number of electrons in the innermost shell.
(c) Number of protons in the nucleus. (d) Number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus.
33. A piece of white phosphorus kept on a glass slide glows in the dark because it
(a) emits radiations (b) gets oxidized emitting light
(c) reflects light like a diamond (d) gets transformed into red phosphorus
34. Which of the following observations shows the presence of argemone oil in the mustard in the mustard
(a) Pink colour on shaking the oil with conc. HCl and a pinch of sugar.
(b) Pink colour on shaking the oil with conc. HCl.
(c) Reddish brown colour on shaking the oil with conc. HNO3.
(d) Reddish brown colour on shaking the oil with water and a pinch of common salt.
35. A boat at anchor is rocked by water waves. If its two consecutive crests are 100 m apart and its velocity
is 25 m/s, how often do the crests reach the boat?
(a) 4.0s (b) 2.0s (c) 0.5s (d) 0.25s
36. Why do passengers in a moving bus fall forward when it stops suddenly?
(a) Because passengers continue to remain at rest as before.
(b) Because passengers continue to feel moving as before.
(c) Because passengers suddenly stop to feel moving as before.
(d) Because the inertia of passengers is more than that of the bus.
37. When is the speed of the bob of an oscillating pendulum maximum?
(a) At the mean position.
(b) At the extreme positions.
(c) Before reaching the extreme position.
(d) In between the mean and extreme positions.
38. Which of the following notations represents an isotope?
(a) 39K19
(b) 23Na11
(c) 14N7
(d) 14C6
39. A neutral atom of an element has a nucleus with a nuclear charge 13 times and mass 27 times that of
hydrogen nucleus. How many electrons would be in its positively charged ion?
(a) 27
(b) 14
(c) 13
(d) 10
40. How many kilojoules of energy is normally required daily by a teenager?
(a) 6,000
(b) 11,000
(c) 14,000
(d) 16,000
41. The conservation of wild relatives of cultivated plants is emphasized because they
(a) give better yield than cultivated plants.
(b) help understand the origin of cultivated plants.
(c) serve as valuable fodder plants.
(d) provide useful genes for plant breeding.
42. Which of the following plant pests damages crops by sucking plant juices but neither it drill holes in
plants nor chew plant parts?
(a) Aphid
(b) Beetle
(c) Locust
(d) Weevil
43. Which vitamins are lost substantially on washing sprouted wheat grains with water repeatedly?
(a) Vitamins C and K
(b) Vitamins B4 and K
(c) Vitamins B1 and B4
(d) Vitamins A and B1
44. The following 4–step food – chain operates in a thick forest:
Grass 􀃆 Insect 􀃆 Snake 􀃆 Peacock
Which of these organisms is classified as secondary consumer?
(a) Peacock
(b) Grass
(c) Insect
(d) Snake
45. Meninges are
(a) membranes covering the heart.
(b) connective tissue membranes covering the brain.
(c) secretion of the pancreas.
(d) myelin shealth on the nerve fibre.
46. Frequency of A.C. mains in India is
(a) 50 cps
(b) 60 cps
(c) 100 cps
(d) 120 cps
47. The distance of distinct vision for a normal human eye is
(a) 60 cm
(b) 25 cm
(c) 15 cm
(d) None of these
48. Rauwolfia serpentiana is useful in the control of
(a) tuberculosis
(b) whooping cough.
(c) hydrophobia.
(d) blood pressure.
49. Nitrolim is a mixture of
(a) calcium and nitrogen.
(b) nitrogen and aluminium.
(c) calcium cynamide and coke.
(d) calcium carbide and nitrogen.
50. Which part of the carpel receives pollen grains as a result of pollination?
(a) Style. (b) Stigma. (c) Ovary (d) Pollen tube.
Answer Key
26(c) 27(d) 28(a) 29(d) 30(b) 31(c) 32(a) 33(a) 34(c)
35(d) 36(b) 37(a) 38(c) 39(d) 40(b) 41(d) 42(a) 43(c)
44(d) 45(b) 46(a) 47(b) 48(d) 49(d) 50(b)

Bioinformatics Interview Questions

1. One of the following not comes under classification of databases on the basis of type of data:

a. Nucleotide sequence b. Protein sequence c. Primary db d. Metabolic pathway

2. Which is the identifier in Genbank

a. Entry Name b. Locus c. both d. None

3. Genbank is updated

a. Per week b. Daily c. Monthly d. yearly

4. EST means

a. Expressed sequence tags b. Extreme sequence tags c. Extended sequence tags d. All

5. Tool used in NCBI to identify similar protein 3 D structures:


6. Which is the literature database of the following:

a. GEO b. PubMed c. EST d. MMDB

7. What is the system used for searching NCBI data

a. Entrez b. SRS c. google d. Bankit

8. Which is the submission system for EBI

a. Webin b. Saskura c. Bankit d. None

9. PDB stands for

a.Public DNA Bank b. Protein Data Bank c. Protein DNA Bank d. All of the above

10. How the Genbank format sequence starts

a. Origin b. sequence c. start d. None

11. How the fasta format file starts:

a. begin b. > c. start d. entry

12. ExPASy used for

a. Nucleic acid analysis b. Protein sequence and structure analysis c. chemical analysis d. All

13. PDB managed by

a. NIH b. RCSB c.EBI d. PIR

14. An automated comparative protein modeling server is:


15. In CATH, T – represents:

a. Torsion b. Topology c. Target d. tRNA

16. ClustalW used for

a. Structure prediction b. Motif analysis c. Multiple sequence alignment d. None

17. First biological database was made by

a. Dayhoff b. Darwin c. Pauling d. Markov

18. 1Hae is an ID of the following databse

a. EMBL b. Genbank c. PDB d. Uniprot

19. KEGG is an structural database

a. true b. false

20. Books available in the following site

a. EMBL b. NCBI c. RCSB d. PIR

21. It is a freely accessible database of protein and genetic interactions

a. GOD b.Motif c. BIOGRID d. None

22. VAST is ____________________________________________

23. BLAST is ___________________________________________

24. Server which predicts the presence and location of signal peptide cleavage sites is

a. Sigpred b. SignalI c. SignalP d.Sigprepred.

25. Before analyzing sequence, it can be converted into different formats using

a. Formcon b. Readseq c. Readcon d. Confor

26. Gene prediction tool at NCBI is

a. Genscan b. Genefinder c. ORF finder d. All

27. Translate tool at ExPASy provides, how many number of frames of frames of translation

a. 3 b.4 c.5 d. 6

28. Characters are homologous with conserved function known as

a. Analogous b. Orthologous c. Paralogous d. Xenologous

29. Which type of PAM matrix mostly used

a. PAM 100 b. PAM150 c. PAM200 d. PAM250

30. Which type of BLOSUM matrix mostly used


31. Pair-wise alignment include

a. Local b. Global c. Both d. None

32. Tool used for Local alignment is

a. BLAST b. ClustalW c. ORF Finder d. Genscan

33. Which alignment might be useful for phylogenetic analysis

a. Pair-wise b. Multiple c. Both d. None

34. Phylogenetic analysis tools include

a. Phylip b. PAUP c. Both d. None

35. Following tool used for primary structure analysis

a. SAPS b. PAPS c. PrimAna d. PriPred

36. Secondary structure predicted by

a. GOR b. COILS c. Nnpred d. All

37. Homology Modelling server is

a. SWISS-MODEL b. 3DPSSM c. Phyre d. Rosetta

38. 3DPSSM predicts tertiary structure through

a. Homology b. Threading c. Abinitio d. All

39. Abinitio approach of tertiary prediction achieved by

a. SWISS-MODEL b. 3DPSSM c. Phyre d. Rosetta

40. Quarternary structure predicted by

a. SWISS-MODEL b. Mercury c. Mericity d. Quantum

41. Vadar used for

a. Alignment b. Structure prediction c. Structure validation d. None

42. Mathemtical representation of Conserved region known as

a. Motif b. Profile c. Pattern d. Module

43. __________ finds structural and sequence motifs in protein sequence

a. Patsearch b. Prosear c. ProfileScan d. Prof

44. ____________ tool used for Pattern construction

a. Pratt b. Patcons c. Both d. None

45. Which produces the abinitio prediction of protein function from sequence

a. ProtFun b. PFP Server c. Pratt d. All

46. Which pathway database based on reference pathway maps:

a. Metacyc b. Ecocyc c. KEGG pathway d. UM-BBD

47. Pathway prediction system of UM-BBD predicts pathway from

a. SMILES b. structures c. Both d. None

48. Which components of Marvin Beans used for structure drawing

a. Marvin Sketch b. Marvin View c. Marvin space d. All

49. Phylip stands for _____________________________

50. PSSM stands for _____________________________

51. ORF stands for ______________________________

52. HMM stands for _____________________________

53. BioEdit used for

a. Similarity studies b. Structure Prediction c. Profile search d. Motif search

54. The study of the effects of drugs on tissues and organs is called as

a. Pharmacodynamcis b. Pharmacokinetics c. Pharmacophore d. All

55. Pharmacophore term defined by

a. Pauling b. Ehrlich c. Koshland d. Watson

56. Lipinski’s rule states that the drug has not more than ________ hydrogen bond donors

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

57. _________________ is an example for automated docking program

a. Hex b. Argus Lab c. Autodock d. VegaZZ

58. How many ways Denovo designing might be used for drug designing

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

59. Leads means

a. Chemical b. drug c. Possible drug d. All

60. ADME-TOX Prediction tool is

a. ADME predictor b. ADME pr c. ADME cal d. None

61. How many phases of clinical trials should be carried out

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

62. _________ should approve proposed clinical trial for drug designing

a. DCGI b. DIG c. President d. Prime Minister

63. ________________ is 3D protein viewer

a. Marvin space b. Rasmol c. Swiss PDB Viewer d. All

64. How many patients should be studied for clinical Phase II trial

a.10-15 b. 20-25 c. 30-35 d. 40-45

65. Hex software used for

a. alignment b. Viewer c. Docking d. None

66. Designing a drug molecule atom by atom against a receptor or target known as

a. Denovo b. QSAR c. Pharmacophore mapping d. Docking

67. Clinical trials for Vaccine contains _________ number of phases

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

68. In how many centres clinical trials should be carried out

a. 1-2 b. 2-3 c. 3-4 d. 4-5

69. A traditional chemist can synthesize _____________ compounds per year

a. 100-200 b. 200-300 c. 300-400 d.400-500

70. Artificial Intelligence term is coined by

a. John McCarthy b. Watson c. Meselson d. George Mitchel

71. When Human Genome Project formally proposed?

a. 1975 b.1985 c.1995 d. 2005

72. When Human Genome Project work was officially started?

a. 1970 b. 1980 c. 1990 d. 2000

73. Which sequencing method efficiently helpful for Human Genome Project?

a. Sanger Method b. Maxm-Gilbert method c. Whole Genome Shotgun d. None

74. How many SNPs present in Human Genome reported by HGP?

a. 2.2 million b.2.1 million c. 3.3 billion d.4.2 billion

75. When first completed report of Human Genome was released?

a. 2000 b.2001 c. 2002 d. 2003

76. When Human genome sequencing initiated?

a. 1996 b.1997 c.1998 d. 1999

77. What is the type of Recombination vector generally recommended for HGP?

a. Plasmid b. Cosmid c. BAC d.YAC

78. How many Protein coding genes might be present in Human Genome?

a. 10,000 b.40,000 c. 80,000 d. None

79. How many groups involved in HGP?

a.10 b.20 c.30 d.40

80. What is the percentage of Human Genome sequenced properly?

a. 50% b.60% c.94% d.84%

81. Large genome annotated database is

a. Genbank b. Uniprot c.Ensembl d. MMDB

82. Ensembl is maintained by


83. How many species support provided by Ensembl as by 47th release on 2007

a. 55 b.45 c.35 d.25

84. Data mining tool used to analyse ensemble

a. Chime b.Rasmol c.BioMart d. None

85. What is the database used in ensembl

a.Oracle b.MS-Access c.Mysql d.all of the above

86. Name the protein sequence database

a. Uniprot b.PIR c.Swiss-prot d.all of the above

87. Speech recognition softwares works based on

a. Cobalt b. AI c.Language d.None

88. ----------- is the program used for natural selection and artificial phenotype selection.

a. Genetic algorithm b. MOD c. ClustalW d. None

89. Robotics based upon the following field

a. Cobalt b. Mysql c.AI d. all of the above

90. ------- - is an interconnected group of artificial neurons and processes information using a connectionist approach to computation.

a. Neural network b. Network c. Internetwork d. Intranetwork

91. Name the software for neural network.

a. SNNS b. Emergent c. JavaNNS d. all of the above

92. SNNS stands for __________________________________________.

93. Name the software for Natural Language Processing

a. openNLP b. SPSS c. SAS d. None

94. RDP Stands for -------------------------------------------

95. Darwin stands for -----------------------------------------------

96. --------------------- is a database that provides comprehensive information on mammalian microRNAs.

a. Argonaute b.RDP c.tRNADB d. None

97. ARED _____________________________

98. tRNA genes are identified by using

a. tRNAscan b.Translate tool c.Chime d. Hex

99. The generation of messenger RNA expression profiles is referred as

a.transcription b. trasncriptomics c.Genomics d.RNAsyn

100. CADD stands for ___________________________________


  1. c
  2. b
  3. b
  4. a
  5. c
  6. b
  7. a
  8. a
  9. b
  10. a
  11. b
  12. b
  13. b
  14. c
  15. b
  16. c
  17. a
  18. c
  19. b
  20. b
  21. c
  22. Vector Alignment Search Tool
  23. Basic Local Alignment Search Tool
  24. b
  25. b
  26. c
  27. d
  28. b
  29. d
  30. a
  31. c
  32. a
  33. b
  34. c
  35. a
  36. d
  37. a
  38. b
  39. d
  40. c
  41. c
  42. b
  43. c
  44. a
  45. a
  46. c
  47. c
  48. a
  49. Phylogeny Inference Package
  50. Position Specific Scoring Matrix
  51. Open Reading Frame
  52. Hidden Markov Model
  53. a
  54. a
  55. b
  56. d
  57. c
  58. b
  59. c
  60. a
  61. d
  62. a
  63. d
  64. b
  65. c
  66. a
  67. c
  68. c
  69. a
  70. a
  71. b
  72. c
  73. c
  74. b
  75. a
  76. d
  77. c
  78. b
  79. b
  80. c
  81. c
  82. b
  83. c
  84. c
  85. c
  86. d
  87. b
  88. a
  89. c
  90. a
  91. d
  92. Stuttgart Neural Network Simulator
  93. a
  94. Ribosomal Database project
  95. Data Analysis and Retrieval With Indexed Nucleotide/peptide sequences.
  96. a
  97. Adenylate Uridylate (AU)-Rich Element Database
  98. a
  99. b

100. Computer Aided drug design

B.Ed Abbreviation Questions

Q-1 STP stands for

Q:2 T& D stands for

Q:3 TA stands for

Q:4 TADA stands for

Q:5 TAFE stands for

Q:6 TAPS stands for

Q:7 TB stands for

Q:8 TCP stands for

Q:9 TDA stands for

Q:10 TERLS stands for

Q11 TFT stands for

Q:12 TIFR stands for

Q:13 TISCO stands for

Q:14 TLC stands for

Q15 TPM stands for

Q:16 TRIPS stands for

Q:17 TSE stands for

Q:18 TTC stands for

Q:19 UCI stands for

Q:20 UCR stands for

Q:21 UGC stands for

Q:22 UNCTAD stands for

Q:23 UNESCO stands for

Q:24 UNI stands for

Q:25 UPA stands for

Q:26 UPS stands for

Q:27 UPSC stands for

Q:28 VAN stands for

Q:29 VAT stands for


1 software technology park

2 transmission & distribution

3 territorial army

4 Terrorist & Disruptive activity act

5: tractor & Farm equipment limited

6 Tarapur Atomic power station

7: Tuborculosis

8: Transmission control protocol

9: Trade development authority

10 Thumba equatorial rocket launching station

11 thin film transistor

12 Tata Institute of fundamental research

13: Tata iron & steel company

14: total literacy campaign

15: Total productivity maintance

16: trade related intellectual property right

17: test of spoken English

18: tracking & command

19 Universal childhood Immunization

20: Under colour removal

21 University Grant Commission

22: United nation conference on trade & development

23: United nation educational scientific & cultural organization

24 United News of India

25: United Progressive alliance

26: uninterrupted power supply

27: union public service commission

28: Virtual area Network

29: value added tax