1) Which of the following components indicate that R3 is a client / server system?
Multiple DB’s
Database server
3 separate hardware servers (DB, applcn & presentation server)
Db service, app service & presentation service
2) Which of the following is not contained in R/3 DB?
a. The R/3 Repository
b. The R/3 kernel
c. Customer Data
d. Transaction data
e. Customizing Data
f. The ABAP dictionary
3) Which of the following is correct in regard to R/3 clients?9/15/2003
a. The R/3 client has it’s own customer data and programs which are not accessible to other clients within the same R/3 system.
b. An R/3 client has all R/3 repository objects and client independent customizing with all other clients in the R/3 system
c. An R/3 client shares customizing and Applcn data with other clients in the same R/3 system
d. An R/3 client enables you to separate applcn data from customizing data
4) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to SAP Client Concept
a. All customizing settings are client independent
b. A client has unique set of applcn data
c. A client has it’s own repository objects
d. All customizing settings are client dependant
5) Which of the following strategies enables R/3 customers to avoid making modifications to SAP Std objects?
a. Using Enhancement techs such as Program exits & menu exits
b. Modifying SAP delivered programs
c. Changing SAP std functionality using the IMG
d. Performing customizing to provide the required functionality
6) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to IMG?
a. The IMG consists of series of customizing activities for defining a Companies Business process
b. The IMG is a online resource providing the necessary info and steps to help you implementing the R/3 applcn Modules
c. IMG is client independent
d. All of the above
7) Which of the following strategies enables an Enterprise to meet its business needs by changing or enhancing R/3 functionality
a. Maintaining application data using the Various R3 Business transactions in the SAP Std
b. Using the ABAP workbench to create the read R/3 repository objects
c. Using customizing to modify R/3 programs after obtaining an access key from OSS
d. Using customer Exits to enhance the functionality of existing SAP Objects
8) Which of the following statements are correct in regards to modifications
A a modification is a change to an SAP Std object
b. A modification must be registered using the SAP OSS (SSCR)
c. SAP recommends modification only if customer’s business meets cannot be me by customizing enhancement techs or customer dev
d. All the above
9) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to the customizing
a. Customizing enables R/3 applcn process to be set to reflect a companies business needs
b. Customizing can be performed only from within IMG
c. Customizing is necessary because R/3 delivered w/o Business process.
d. None of the above
10) Which of the following is correct in regard to R/3 repository
a. Customers can develop new repository objects using tools in the ABAP workbench.
b. Customer developed repository objects reside in the R/3 repository alongside std repository objects
c. Customers can create & assign new repository objects to a development class
d. All of the above
11) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to critical client roles as recommended by SAP?
a. Customizing changes can be made in any client
b. All customizing & dev changes should be made in a single R/3 client
c. Repository object should be created and changed in R/3 Quality assurance client (QAS)
d. Unit testing should take place in the customizing and dev client
12) Which of the following activities should not be performed within a system landscape
a. Customizing & dev changes are promoted to a QAS client before being delivered to PRD
b. The R/3 system is upgraded to a new R/3 release
c. Dev changes are mad directly in the PRD client
d. Changes are assigned to a specific role
13) Which of the following benefits does the 3-system landscape recommended by SAP have?
a. Customizing and dev, testing, and prod activities take place in separate DB environments and do not affect one another
b. Changes are tested in the QAS system and imported in the PRD system only after verification
c. Client independent changes can be made in the DEV system w/o immediately affecting the PRD client
d. All of the above
14) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to multiple R/3 clients?
a. All clients in the same R/3 system share the same R/3 repository and client independent customizing settings
b. No more than one client in the same R/3 system should allow changes to client independent customizing changes.
c. If a client allows for changes to client dependent customizing, the client should also allow for changes to Client independent customizing objects
d. All of the above.
15) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to setup of 3-system landscape
a. There is only R/3 DB for the system landscape
b. One client should allow for the automatic recording of client dependent customizing and client independent changes.
c. All R/3 systems have the same System ID (SID)
d. All clients must have unique client numbers
16) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to the CUST client
a. It should allow changes to client independent customizing, but not repository objects
b. It should automatically record all changes to customizing settings
c. It should not allow changes to client dependent and client independent customizing settings
d. It should allow for all changes, but not require recording of changes to change request.
17) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to the 2-system landscape
a. It is not optimal because 2 is limited opportunity to test the transport of changes from the DEV system to the PRD system
b. It allows for changes to Customizing in the PRD system
c. It is recommended by SAP because Customizing and DEV do not impact QAS testing.
d. All of the above
18) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to Phase implementation.
a. All CUST changes made in PRD support system must also be made in the DEV system
b. The system landscape requires 5 R/3 systems
c. Changes in the PRD support system do not have to be made in the DEV env
d. The system landscape needs an env that supports a PRD system with any reqd changes.
19) Which of the following statements is not valid in regard to global system landscape
a. A global template can be used for the roll out of corporate CUST settings and DEV efforts
b. Management of different repository objects can be managed using name spaces, and name ranges for the repository objects
c. Merging and CUST settings delivered by the corporate office with local CUST efforts can easily be done using change requests
d. SAP provides different tools to aid the roll-out of a global template.
20) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to CUST and DEV changes?
a. all changes are recorded to task in CUST change request
b. the changes should be recorded to tasks in change requests for transport to other clients and systems
c. the changes must be manually performed in every R/3 system
d. the changes can easily be made simultaneously in multiple clients.
21) Which of the following statements in regard to change requests is false?
The customizing organizer and the workbench organizer are tools used to view, create and manager change request
A change request is a collection of tasks where developers and people performing customizing record the changed they make.
All changes made as a result of IMG activities are recorded to customizing change requests.
SAP recommends setting your R/3 system so that customizing changes made in the customizing and development client are automatically recorded to change requests.
22) For which of the following activities is the TMS (tcode STMS) not designed?
Releasing change requests
Viewing import queues
Viewing log files generated by both the export process and the import process
Initiating the import process
23) Which of the following statements is correct after you have successfully imported change request into the quality assurance system?
The change requests must be released again to be exported to the production system.
The data files containing the changed objects are deleted from the transport directory
The change requests need to be manually added to the import queue of the production system
The change requests are automatically added to the import queue of the production system.
24) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to the change requests in an import queue?
They are sequenced according to their change request number.’
They are sequenced in the order in which they were exported from the development system
They are sequenced according to the name of the user who released the requests
They are not sequenced by default, but arranged in a variety of ways using the TMS
25) Which of the following techniques can be used to transfer application data between two PRD systems?
Recording transaction data to change requests
Using ALE to transfer application data
Using the client copy tool
All the above
26) Which of the following types of data transfer are possible within appropriate use of interface technologies?
Transferring legacy data to an R/3 system
Transferring data between R/3 clients
Transferring data to non-SAP systems
Transporting change requests to multiple R/3 systems
27) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to user master data?
User master data can be transported in a change request
User master data is unique to each R/3 system, but is shared across clients in the same R/3 system.
A specific client copy option enables you to distribute user master data together with authorization profile data
User master data included all user logon information, including the definition of authorizations and profiles
28) Which of the following clients should u copy to create new clients and ensure that all data from post installation processing is also copied?
a. Client 000
b. Client 001
c. Client 066
29) Which of the following is not a SAP recommended strategy for setting up a system landscape
a. Using a client copy from the DEV system to set up your QAS and PRD system when the change request strategy is not an option
b. Creating the PRD system as a combination of a client copy from the QAS system and change request from the DEV system
c. Using the same setup strategy to establish both the QAS and PRD systems
d. Setting up the QAS and PRD system by importing Change requests prompted from the DEV system
30) Which of the following are correct in regard to setup of TMS?
a. The TMS should be setup when the DEV system is installed
b. The TMS should include all R/3 systems in the system landscape even if the R/3 systems do not physically exist
c. The TMS is critical in establishing the Transport between the DEV & QAS system
d. The TMS should be setup before the Change request is created in the CUST and DEV client
31) Which of the following is correct in regard to system copy strategy
a. SAP recommends the system copy strategy because all CUST & DEV objects are transferred
b. SAP does not recommend the system copy strategy because there is no easy to eliminate the unwanted APPLCN data
c. A system copy is the easiest set of strategy recommended by SAP
d. A system copy eliminates the need for change requests for the entire R/3 implementation
32) Which of the following activities is not necessary for exporting a change request
a. Documenting every task in the request
b. Releasing every task in the change request
c. Verification of the contents of the change request by the system administrator
d. Unit testing the change request.
33) Which of the following is correct in regard to the task used in the change request that record CUST & DEV changes
a. Task belongs to change request
b. Task can be used by several R/3 users
c. Task are direct responsibility of the Project leader
d. Task records only client specific changes
34) Which of the following indicates that the change request has been signed off after QAS testing.
a. The change request has been released after unit testing.
b. The change request has been successfully imported into the QAS system
c. The change request is added into the import queue of all other R/3 systems in the system landscape
d. The project leader communicates the approval of the change request
35) Which of the following is NOT an SAP recommendation
a. Imports into the QAS & PRD system should occur in the same sequence.
b. Even if the import process is automatically scripted a technical consultant or system admin should revise the result of the import
c. The project leader should manually add a change request to import queue of the QAS system
d. Change request are imported in the same sequence that they were exported from the DEV system
36) Which of the following is SAP’s recommendation on how to rush an emergency correction into the PRD system
a. Make the changes directly in the PRD system
b. Transport the changes from the DEV system to QAS system & PRD system using preliminary import
c. Make the change and use a client copy with change request to distribute the changes into PRD
d. Make the change in the QAS system and transport using preliminary import
37) Which of the following transport activities is not typically the responsibility of the system admin
a. Importing change request into all clients within R/3 system
b. Verifying the success of import process
c. Releasing the change request
d. Assisting in solving either export or import errors
38) Which of the following does SAP provide a customer support?
a. R/3 release upgrade to provide new functionality
b. Support packs to correct identified problems in a specific R/3 release
c. R/3 notes to announce errors & corrections for reported problems
d. All of the above
39) The R/3 system ID (SID)
a. Must be unique for each system sharing the same transport directory
b. Must be unique for each system in the system landscape
c. Can start with a number
d. Can consist of any 3 char combination
40) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to the TRANS dir
a. There can be only one TRANS dir in a system landscape
b. All R/3 systems within Transport group share a common TRANS dir
c. In a system landscape using heterogeneous platforms it is not possible to have a common TRANS dir
d. Only the PRD system can contain the TRANS dir
41) The Transport control program TP
a. Is stored in subdirectory bin of TRANS dir
b. Uses program R3TRANS to access the DB when transporting changes
c. Cannot be used directly on the OS level
d. Depends on the settings of the transport profile
42) The transport profile
Is stored in subdirectory bin of TRANS dir
Contains comments and parameter settings that configure the transport control program TP
Is managed from within TMS as of release 4.5, but is modified with OS text editors in earlier release
Contains only settings that are valid for all R/3 systems in the system landscape
43) The initialization procedure of the CTO
Is especially required after a system copy
Establishes the initial value for change request Ids
Is not mandatory for the purpose of enabling transports
Is performed automatically during R/3 installation by program R3setup
44) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to the settings governing changes to repository objects
Only the customer name range should be modifiable in production systems.
Developments are possible in an R/3 system only if you have applied for a development namespace from SAP
If the global change option is set to not modifiable, it nevertheless possible to make changes in certain name spaces or clients that has their change option set to modifiable.
The global change option should always be set to not modifiable for the quality assurance system and the production system.
45) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to the R/3 systems belonging to a transport domain?
They all share the same transport directory
They are managed centrally using TMS
They belong to the same transport group
They must run on the same operating system and database platform
46) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to the domain controller?
It must be the production system
It occurs once in a transport domain
It occurs in each transport group
It can only be the R/3 system that was originally designated as the transport domain controller
It should never be the production system due to the high system load that the domain controller causes
47) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to the TMS?
It needs to be initialized only on the transport domain controller
It needs to be initialized only on the transport domain controller and the backup domain controller
It must be initialized on every R/3 system
It must be set up before you can set up transport routes
48) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to the RFC destinations for TMS connections?
They are generated automatically when a transport route is created
They are generated between the domain controller and each R/3 system in the transport domain
They must be established manually before you can use the TMS
They are generated during the TMS initialization process
They are only needed for importing change requests
49) How is the actual system landscape, including R/3 system roles and relationships, defined using the TMS?
By including all R/3 system in the transport domain
By configuring transport routes
By assigning a role to each R/3 system during the TMS initialization process
By designating real, virtual, and external R/3 systems
50) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to a consolidation route?
It is defined by an integration system and a consolidation system, and is associated with a transport layer
It is created in the TMS by defining only an integration system and a consolidation system
It is not necessarily required in a two-system landscape
It can be defined only once in a transport group
51) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to client-specific transport routes?
A. They are possible as of R/3 Release 4.0
B. They are possible only as of R/3 Release 4.5, and only if extended transport control is activated
C. They are only allowed for target groups
D. They may not be used in conjunction with client-independent transport routes
52) After you create a new client entry in table T000, which of the following activities enables you to provide the client with data?
A remote client copy to populate the client with data from a client in another R/3 system
A client transport to import data from a client in another R/3 system
A local client copy to import data from a client within the same R/3 system
All of the above
53) Which of the following cannot be used to restrict a client from certain activities?
The client role
The client-dependent change option
The client ID-number
A client restriction
The client-independent change option
54) Which of the following tasks can be performed using the client copy tools?
Merging application data from one client into another client
Copying only application data from one client to another client
Copying only Customizing data from one client to another client
All of the above
55) Which of the following tasks can be performed using the client copy profiles?
Scheduling a client copy to occur at a time when system use is low
Selecting the subset of application data that will be copied when a client copy is executed
Providing required user authorization for the use of client tools
Determining the data that will be copied when a client copy is executed
56) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to table logging?
Table logging should be used instead of change requests whenever possible
Table logging provides an audit history of who made what changes and when
Table logging does not negatively impact system resources
All of the above
57) Which of the following statements is false in regard to development classes?
A. Development classes facilitate project management by grouping similar Repository objects
B. All Repository objects are assigned to a development class
C. A development class determines the transport route that a changed Repository object will follow
D. A local object does not need a development class
58) Which of the following kinds of changes are transported using Workbench change requests?
Client-independent changes
Modifications to SAP-delivered objects
Changes made using the ABAP Editor and ABAP Dictionary
Repairs to R/3 Repository objects that originated in another R/3 System
All of the above
59) Which of the following data is not contained in the object list of a task?
A. The actual change made to the objects listed in the task
B. The list of changed objects recorded to the task
C. Whether the objects recorded to the task are locked
D. The complete Object Directory entry for the object
60) Which of the following statements are correct regarding repairs and modifications?
Repairs are changes to SAP-delivered objects; modifications are changes to any object that originated on an R/3 System other than the current R/3 System
A repair flag protects an R/3 Repository object against being overwritten by an import
All repairs are saved to Workbench change requests
A modification is a change to an SAP-delivered object
All of the above
61) Which of the following requirements must be met before you can change both client-dependent and client-independent Customizing settings in a client?
A. The client settings must allow for changes to client-independent Customizing objects
B. The client role must be Production
C. The system change option must be set to Modifiable
D. The client settings must allow for changes to client-dependent Customizing
62) Which of the following statements are correct when project leaders and project team members receive only the recommended authorizations?
A. Only developers can create change requests
B. Only project leaders can create change requests, and are therefore responsible for assigning project team members to change requests
C. Project team members can create and release change requests
D. Project leaders can release change requests
63) Which of the following statements are correct with regard to Project IMGs?
A. The Project IMG provides access to the Customizing activities defined for a particular project
B. Customizing is performed in the project IMG tree structure
C. The Project IMG enables you to display project status information and document Customizing activities
D. All of the above
64) Which of the following activities are performed using the Customizing Organizer?
A. Viewing all Customizing change requests related to a particular user
B. Viewing all Workbench change requests related to a particular user
C. Viewing all change requests related to a particular user
D. Managing change requests you own or reviewing change requests in which you have assigned tasks
65) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to Customizing?
A. All Customizing activities in the IMG activities can be transported
B. All changes resulting from IMG activities can be transported
C. All Customizing changes are automatically recorded to a change request if the client change option is set to Automatic recording of changes
D. A Customizing activity may involve the creation of client-independent objects and therefore requires Workbench change request
66) Which of the following activities are performed using client comparison tools?
A. Comparing the customizing settings of two R/3 clients in the same R/3 System or in a different R/3 System
B. Adjusting the Customizing differences between two different R/3 clients
C. Transporting Customizing settings into the production client
D. Comparing the objects listed in the object list of a change request with an R/3 client
67) Which of the following is a prerequisite for copying client-dependent changes to a unit test client using a client copy according to a transport request (Transaction SCC1)?
A. The change request has been released
B. The tasks have been released, but the change request has not
C. The tasks have been released after successful unit testing by the owner of the task
D. The change request has not been released
68) Which of the following are the results of releasing a task?
A. A data file is created in the transport directory and contains the objects recorded in the change request
B. The object list and documentation for the task are copied to the change request
C. All objects recorded in the task are locked
D. You can no longer save changes to that task
69) Which of the following are result of releasing and exporting a change request?
A. A data file is created in the transport directory to contain copies of the objects recorded in the change request
B. Versions are created in the version database for all R/3 Repository objects in the object list of the change request
C. All repairs recorded in the change request are confirmed
D. You can no longer save changes to that change request
70) When you release a Customizing change request, you have the option to do which of the following?
A. Release the change request to another Customizing change request
B. Schedule the release of the change request for a late time
C. Release the change request to a transportable change request
D. Initiate immediate release and export
71) Which of the following is a prerequisite for releasing a transportable change request?
A. There are no syntax errors in the ABAP programs recorded to the change request
B. You must own the tasks in the change request
C. All Repository objects in the change request are locked by the change request
D. The change request has documentation
72) The export process initiates which of the following activities?
A. The creation of files in the transport directory
B. The automatic import of change requests into the target system—for example, the quality assurance system
C. The addition of the exported change request to the import buffer of the target system
D. The deletion of the change request within the R/3 System
73) Which of the following activities result in a version history for all Repository objects?
A. A Repository object is recorded to a change request
B. Change requests are imported into an R/3 System, and the transport parameter vers_at_imp is activated
C. A task containing a Repository object is released
D. A change request containing a Repository object is released
74) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to import queues?
A. Import queues are the TMS representation of the import buffer on the operating system level
B. You have to manipulate import queues to transport change requests
C. Import queues should be closed before starting an import using TMS
D. You can import only an entire import queue
75) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to preliminary imports?
A. SAP recommends using preliminary imports rather than imports of entire queues.
B. Preliminary imports should be performed only in exceptional cases
C. Change requests imported as preliminary imports remain in the import queue
D. Change requests are deleted from the import queue after preliminary imports. This prevents them from being imported gain with the next import of the entire import queue
76) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to imports into an R/3 System?
A. Imports can be performed only by using the start import functionality in the TMS
B. Imports can be performed only by using tp commands on the operating system level to prepare the import queue and then using the start import functionality in the TMS
C. Imports can be performed only by using tp commands at the operating system level
D. Imports can be performed by using either a tp command on the operating system level or the TMS import functionality
77) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to transports between different transport groups?
A. They are not possible
B. They can be performed only by using tp on the operating system level with special options
C. They can be performed using the TMS with special options provided by the expert mode
D. They require you to adjust the corresponding import queues
78) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to transports between different transport domains?
A. They are not possible
B. They require you to create a virtual system and a virtual transport directory
C. They require you to configure identical transport groups within the different transport domains
D. They require you to create external systems and an external transport directory
E. They require you to adjust the corresponding import queues.
79) Which of the following statements re correct in regard to the transport control program tp?
A. To perform imports, tp must always be used directly on the operating system level
B. SAP recommends that you use the TMS instead of tp to perform imports
C. tp is responsible for exporting and importing objects from and to R/3 Systems
D. tp does not observe the sequence of change requests in the import queue when performing imports
80) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to import queues and import buffers?
A. Import queues are TMS representations in R/3 of the import buffer files on the operating system level
B. Import queues and import buffers are completely independent of each other
C. Import buffers have to be manipulated before imports can be performed on the operating system level
D. Manipulating import buffers may cause serious inconsistencies and should be performed only in exceptional cases.
81) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to the import options formerly known as unconditional modes?
A. Import options cannot be used when imports are performed on the operating system level using tp.
B. Import options are used to cause specific rules of the Change and Transport System (CTS) to be ignored
C. Import options must be used when importing into multiple clients using tp.
D. Import options can be selected in the TMS using the expert mode
82) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to the sequence of processing steps tp follows when performing imports?
A. tp collectively processes each import step for all change requests in an import queue before proceeding with the next import step
B. tp processes all import steps for a single request before proceeding to the next change request
C. The processing sequence followed by tp ensures that when a change request with a faulty object is followed in the import queue by a change request with the corrected object, the faulty object will not affect the runtime environment of the target system
D. tp imports and activates ABAP Dictionary structures prior to the main import phase to ensure that the current structures are able to receive new data during the main import phase.
83) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to troubleshooting imports?
A. In R/3, you cannot display log files that do not depend on a specific request. For example, you cannot display log files related to generic import steps, such as structure conversion.
B. SAP recommends that you check the SLOG file and the ALOG file before checking the single step log files.
C. By default, all return codes greater than eight cause tp to abort a running import
D. tp is the only transport tool that uses return codes.
84) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to buffer synchronization?
A. Transport activities do not affect buffer synchronization
B. Imports affect buffer synchronization even in central R/3 systems
C. R3trans can invalidate buffer content
D. Importing data into a production system can significantly impact performance, because some buffer content may be invalidated and reloaded. This causes high system load
E. Importing programs and ABAP Dictionary data cannot cause inconsistencies in the target system, even if the programs or data affect running programs and their environment
85) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to the interaction between transport tools?
A. During exports, tp calls R3trans to access the database of the source system and extract the objects to be transported
B. tp triggers the transport daemon RDDIMPDP in R/3 using the operating system tool sapevt
C. Using the tables TRBAT and TRJOB, tp communicates with ABAP programs involved in the transport process
D. tp communicates with only RDDIMPDP
86) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to the R/3 Release strategy?
A. Functional Releases are automatically shipped to all customers
B. Correction Releases provide only corrections and no new functionality with respect to the previous R/3 Functional Release
C. Functional Releases receive only limited OCS maintenance; that is, only very urgent corrections are available as Support Packages
D. R/3 Release upgrades are possible only for Correction Releases
87) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to Support Packages?
A. Support Packages change the SAP standard of your R/3 System in advance of the next R/3 Release upgrade
B. You can apply all types of Support Packages to all R/3 installations, regardless of the components used in the installation
C. Support Packages are available only to customers who are participants in the First Customer Shipment (FCS) program
D. Different types of Support Packages may be required for R/3 Installations with different components
88) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to the SAP Patch Manager?
A. The SAP Patch Manager ensures that Support Packages are applied in the correct sequence
B. The SAP Patch Manager does not check whether the type of Support Package you wish to apply is appropriate for your R/3 installation. It is up to you to decide whether, for example, you require a Conflict Resolution Transport.
C. The SAP Patch Manager does not offer you the chance to protect SAP objects that you have modified. These objects are automatically overwritten.
D. The SAP Patch Manager automatically prompts you to call the modification adjustment Transactions SPDD or SPAU if necessary
89) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to R/3 Release upgrades?
A. Objects in the customer namespace are not overwritten
B. A Repository switch is the replacement of your current R/3 Repository by the R/3 Repository in the new R/3 Release
C. All customer modifications to ABAP Dictionary object are lost
D. Customer modifications to SAP objects that you want to preserve must be transferred to the new Release through the modification adjustment process
90) Which of the following statements are correct in regard to the modification adjustment process?
A. Transaction SPAU is used for most ABAP Dictionary objects
B. Transaction SPDD is used for most ABAP Dictionary objects
C. Not using Transaction SPDD where applicable may cause data loss
D. During modification adjustment, you must choose to return to the SAP standard
Answers:
1. D
2. B
3. B
4. B
5 A, D
6 D
7. B, D
8. D
9 A
10. D
11. B
12. C
13. D
14. D
15. B
16. B
17. A
18. A, D
19. C
20. B
21 C
22. A
23 D
24 B
25 B
26 A, B, C
27 C
28 B
29 B
30 A, B, C, D
31 B
32 C
33 A
34 D
35 C
36 B
37 C
38 D
39 A, B
40 B
41 B, D
42 A, B, C
43 A, B
44 D
45 B
46 B
47 C, D
48 B, D
49 B
50 A
51 B, D
52 D
53 C
54 C
55 D
56 B
57 D
58 E
59 A, D
60 B, C, D
61 A, C, D
62 B, D
63 D
64 A, B, C, D
65 D
66 A, B, D
67 D
68 B, D
69 A, B, D
70 C, D
71 C
72 A, C
73 B, D
74 A, C
75 B, C
76 D
77 D
78 D, E
79 B, C
80 A, D
81 B, C, D
82 A, C, D
83 A, B, C
84 B, C, D
85 A, B, C
86 B, C
87 A, D
88 A, D
89 A, B, D
90 B, C
Showing posts with label SAP BDC. Show all posts
Showing posts with label SAP BDC. Show all posts
Tuesday, February 19, 2008
SAP4 Basis
1 - The ______ manages the information exchange between the SAPGUI and the work processes.
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Data Dictionary
B. Message server
C. Gateway service
D. Dispatcher
2 - What does "enqueue" and "dequeue" mean?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Puts/reads messages in the SAP message queue.
B. Locks/unlocks SAP objects during database updates.
C. Enables/disables SAP print queues.
D. Reads/writes update messages in the database.
3 - Update workprocesses may be categorized as V1 or V2. Which of the 2 types of Update workprocesses has priority?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. V1 and V2 workprocesses are handled simultaneously without priority.
B. V1 and V2 workprocesses are handled on a first-in-first-out basis.
C. Processing priority is determined by the rdisp/wp_no_vb profile parameter.
D. V1 workprocesses have priority.
E. V2 workprocesses have priority.
4 - If a user is logged on to a server group, how are dialog work processes assigned to this user?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. The user always remains assigned to the same dialog work process, regardless of server load.
B. Depending on the load of the servers, different dialog work processes of the same R/3 Instance will be assigned to the user.
C. Depending on the load of the servers, different dialog work processes of different instances will be assigned to this user.
D. It is not possible to logon to a server group.
5 - If an R/3 System has the dialog, update, enqueue, background, message, gateway and spool services installed using Instance ID 01 and connects to a database using the database system identifier C11, what is the R/3 System Instance name?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. DVBMGS01_C11
B. DVEBMGS
C. DVEBMGS01_C11
D. DVEBMS01_C11
6 - What controls R/3 System user authorizations and default id values?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. User administration at the operating system level.
B. The ABAP/4 Dictionary.
C. The Developer's Workbench.
D. The R/3 System user master record.
E. The Workbench Organizer.
7 - Which of the following is NOT true of the R/3 System Authorization concept?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Authorizations are used to administer and assign access rights to data and functions in the R/3 System.
B. Authorizations are used to set up users in the R/3 System.
C. Users defined in the R/3 System automatically receive full operating system user privileges.
D. Access to specific R/3 data can be defined using authorizations.
E. R/3 objects may have several authorizations assigned.
8 - When you create a new user, to which client may the user log on?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. All clients.
B. Only in the client where the user was created.
C. In the client where the user was created and in client 000.
D. In the client where the user was created and in client 001.
9 - When an SAP instance switches to a new operation mode which has no configured background tasks, what happens to any active background processes at the time of the switch?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. All active batch processes are aborted.
B. All batch processes are suspended and are resumed when batch services become available.
C. All active batch processes finish to completion before the operation mode is switched.
D. All active batch processes complete and the operation mode does not switch.
10 - Which of the following is NOT true of event controlled background processing in R/3?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. An event can be triggered from within R/3 by ABAP/4 programs.
B. An event in R/3 can be triggered from outside of the R/3 System by using the operating system level program, sapevt.
C. It is not necessary for the R/3 System to be active for events to be triggered.
D. Events are used internally by the R/3 System and cannot be raised by users.
E. The sapevt program can start the event scheduler in R/3 which checks the job queue for scheduled jobs waiting for this event and then starts these jobs.
11 - What are 2 ways to start an ABAP/4 program?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. In online or in offline mode.
B. In online or in background mode.
C. As local or as remote programs.
D. ABAP/4 programs can only be started online.
E. As a client or as a server program.
12 - What is the name of the program at the operating system level which is used when an ABAP/4 program is used to trigger an external program?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. disp+work
B. gwrd
C. sapevt
D. sapxpg
E. saposcol
13 - With which operating system level program do external programs communicate when triggering R/3 System events?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. disp+work
B. gwrd
C. sapevt
D. sapxpg
E. saposcol
14 - In an R/3 transport environment the transport layer defines the transport route between the integration system and which other system?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Delivery system
B. Consolidation system
C. Customizing system
D. Demo system
E. Database management system
15 - Which of the following is NOT true of a quality assurance system in a threesystem landscape?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Original objects cannot be transported to a quality assurance system.
B. Another name for a quality assurance system is "Consolidation" system.
C. The quality assurance system is where the final verification and testing of all implementation efforts occurs.
D. Development errors should be corrected in the quality assurance system and transported to the development system.
E. Only repairs are possible in the quality assurance system. All corrections must be transported from the development system.
16 - Transaction SE06 provides functions for configuring the Workbench Organizer (WBO) in the SAP System. Which of the following is NOT performed by the SE06 transaction?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Automatic generation of transport system table entries for complex system landscapes.
B. Generate a standard WBO configuration.
C. Maintain the WBO configuration.
D. Displays the current WBO configuration.
E. Sets the system change option.
17 - Which of the following SAP tables defines the transport layer for distributing the development class objects among the systems in a system landscape?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. TSYST
B. TASYS
C. DEVL
D. TDEVC
E. TWSYS
18 - Which of the following statements regarding a single system landscape is NOT true?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Maintenance level and release upgrades may be applied.
B. Only local transports may be created.
C. A single-system landscape is suitable for demonstrations and training.
D. A single system landscape is recommended for production use as long as all development remains in client 001.
E. The Workbench Organizer (WBO) configuration of a single system landscape may be changed to define the system as a member of a multi-system landscape when subsequent systems are installed.
19 - Which of the following statements about the R/3 transport directory is correct?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. The transport directory physical location is dependent upon which database is being used.
B. SAP recommends that a separate transport directory be local on each R/3 System.
C. The transport directory may not be shared among R/3 Systems because it will cause database and filesystem inconsistencies.
D. The use of a common transport directory is recommended by SAP because it facilitates transport functionality among systems in a multi-system landscape.
20 - Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Clients can be copied within a single R/3 System.
B. Clients can be copied between R/3 Systems of the same release.
C. User master records can be copied between clients.
D. The Client Copy tools support the copying of printer definitions between clients.
21 - What is the correct System Change Option for a quality assurance system?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Only original objects.
B. All customer objects.
C. All objects.
D. Objects cannot be changed.
22 - What is the recommended System Change Option for a production system?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Only original objects.
B. All customer objects.
C. All objects.
D. Objects cannot be changed.
23 - Which of the following is true of creating new clients within an R/3 System?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Customizing and repository objects from a source client are copied to the new client using the client copy tool.
B. The client transport tool can be used to simultaneously transfer multiple SAP clients from one R/3 System to another in a single action.
C. Log files indicating the success of a new client creation are stored in the home directory of the user initiating the copy.
D. Profiles define the types of client data to be copied.
E. Remote client copies generate large data files at the operating system level.
24 - What is the minimum number of Dialog Work Processes in an SAP Instance?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Central Instance: 0 , Dialog Instance: 0
B. Central Instance: 0 , Dialog Instance: 1
C. Central Instance: 2 , Dialog Instance: 1
D. Central Instance: 2 , Dialog Instance: 2
25 - Which of the following is true of operation modes in R/3?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Productive operation modes may only be switched manually.
B. Test operation modes may be switched manually or periodically.
C. Operation modes can be used to startup/shutdown SAP instances.
D. Operation modes can be scheduled for specific dates and times.
E. Operation modes must be defined as either productive, test or demo.
26 - Which transaction may be used to list all users who are logged on to all the R/3 instances in an SAP System group?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. RZ04
B. SE38
C. AL08
D. SM21
27 - What is the user name and password for the R/3 System administrator in a newly installed system (Clients 000 and 001)?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. User name: SAP*, password: ddic
B. User name: SAP*, password: init
C. User name: SAP*, password: 06071992
D. User name: SAP*, password: manager
E. User name: SAP*, password: 19920706
28 - What is the user name and password for the R/3 System data dictionary administrator in a newly installed system (Clients 000 and 001)?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. User name: SAP*, password: ddic
B. User name: DDIC, password: init
C. User name: DDIC, password: manager
D. User name: DDIC, password: 06071992
E. User name: DDIC, password: 19920706
29 - Which of the following is true in terms of configuring the R/3 Enqueue Service?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Each R/3 instance may have a locally running enqueue service.
B. The host where the enqueue service runs is defined in the startup profile.
C. There must be exactly 1 enqueue service per SAP System.
D. The enqueue service must be installed on the R/3 Central instance.
30 - Which table must be empty after an SAP Upgrade has finished?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. TBATG
B. TASYS
C. TSYST
D. TADIR
E. TXCOM
31 - After an ABAP/4 Dictionary object has been modified, what must be done before it is usable by application programs?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. It must be transported to all the other R/3 hosts.
B. It must be copied to all other R/3 clients.
C. It must be activated.
D. The R/3 instance must be restarted to flag the program's availability.
32 - What is the sequence that should be used when upgrading R/3 Systems in a multi-system landscape environment?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. The systems should be upgraded in the sequence defined in the transport path.
B. All the systems should be upgraded simultaneously to save time.
C. The production system should be upgraded first.
D. The sequence depends upon the database backup implementation timetable.
E. The upgrade sequence is dependent upon the project managers availability.
33 - Which of the following is NOT a factor in R/3 upgrade planning strategy?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Determine the sequence of upgrading all systems in the system group.
B. System downtime for data backups before and after the upgrade.
C. Duration of the upgrade.
D. Whether or not all SAP prerequisites can be met prior to the upgrade.
E. Whether or not all of the R/3 user frontend PC's use Microsoft Windows 95 or Windows for Workgroups.
34 - Which of the following is NOT true concerning the SPDD transaction?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. ABAP/4 Dictionary objects are adjusted during an upgrade using the SPDD transaction.
B. Transaction SPDD should be executed as soon as the R3up upgrade control program indicates.
C. The objects affected by SPDD adjustments are domains, data elements, and tables.
D. SPDD adjustments are not necessary unless changes have been made to the SAP standard ABAP/4 Dictionary objects. Objects in the customer name range are not processed.
E. All SPDD adjustments should be done by the R/3 System user DDIC and not by a normal user.
35 - Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning the SPAU transaction?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. After completion of an upgrade, you have a limited time period for executing transaction SPAU without needing an SSCR key for adjusted objects.
B. Adjustment of ABAP/4 Repository objects is carried out with the help of the SPAU transaction.
C. The R3up program instructs the user to start SPAU at the end of an upgrade.
D. Objects adjusted by SPAU should be saved to a single change request for transport to subsequent systems.
E. Adjustment of ABAP/4 Dictionary objects (domains, data elements, and tables) is done using the SPAU transaction.
36 - To perform any modification in an R/3 System (release 3.0), the modification must be registered with the SAP Software Change Registration (SSCR).
Which of the following DOES NOT apply to SSCR?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Developers must be registered in the SAP OSS System.
B. All modifications must be registered in the OSS System.
C. The customer's R/3 System must have a correctly installed SAP license.
D. The customer must fax an object modification request to SAP.
E. The R/3 installation number for the system must be valid.
37 - Which of the following is NOT true of the SAP Enhancement Concept?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. It allows customers to add their own functionality to SAP standard business applications.
B. Program and menu exits are a fundamental component of the Enhancement Concept.
C. SAP has created user exits for specific programs, screens, fields and menus within the standard R/3 applications.
D. Customers may create their own exits without notifying SAP because the user exits lie in the customer name range.
E. Exits do not exist for all programs, screens and menues.
38 - Does an SAP owned object have to be assigned to a customer development class in order to be modified?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Yes. A modification should be assigned to a customer development class. This eliminates the need for a modification adjustment during the upgrade process.
B. No. The object belongs to SAP and is considered standard functionality. The development class provides the object with its needed ownership and must not change.
C. Yes. An automatic pop-up window forces a developer to assign a changed SAP object to a new development class.
D. It does not matter because of the flexibility of the system parameter option assignment scheme.
E. No. It will be assigned to a new development class automatically.
39 - At which stage in the upgrade process is it necessary to perform an ABAP/4 Dictionary adjustment?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Immediately following the import of the new ABAP/4 Dictionary.
B. After running the PREPARE script and reviewing the suggestions in the CHECK.log file.
C. This step is performed automatically by ADJUSTIMP and no user interaction is necessary.
D. As part of the post-upgrade procedure.
E. Within 14 days after an upgrade is finished.
40 - A repository switch upgrade of an R/3 System involves:
Note: There is more than one right answer! Click on the buttons next to the right answers.
A. Comparing all modifications with the new SAP standard.
B. Replacing the current customer repository with the new SAP standard.
C. System downtime from the start of the upgrade process.
D. Merging the customer's current SAP repository with the new SAP standard.
E. Adjusting all customer developed objects with new and improved program logic.
41 - Which of the following statements is NOT true of how customers can avoid making modifications to SAP standard objects?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Make use of enhancement concepts such as program exits and menu exits.
B. Take advantage of the table append technology when changing table definitions.
C. Use Hot Packages to perform program corrections rather than keying in coding changes manually.
D. Create their own repository objects in order to provide additional functionality.
E. Modify their business processes so that the standard SAP software will fulfill all of their requirements.
42 - Which of the following is NOT true concerning R/3 Upgrade Notes?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Reading R/3 Notes is absolutely essential before beginning an R/3 upgrade.
B. Notes are available from the SAP Online Service System (OSS) or may be requested by fax from SAP.
C. Notes are optional documents which are only used for marketing information and contain no useful information for upgrades.
D. Notes are updated continually as new upgrade information becomes known. They should be downloaded prior to each upgrade.
E. Notes may contain references to other R/3 Notes which may also need to be referenced.
43 - Which of the following is NOT true of Hot Packages?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Hot Packages provide program error corrections as part of the SAP Online Correction Services.
B. Hot Packages are bundles of corrections in the ABAP/4 Repository of the R/3 Software.
C. Each Hot Package is linked to R/3 Notes where the corrected program errors are explained.
D. Hot Packages should be imported into an R/3 System as soon as they are available.
E. Hot Packages are only for demonstration purposes and as optional system add-ons and will not have any effect on system operations.
44 - Which of the following statements is true of all changes made to SAP owned objects?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Changes must not be registered with SAP Software Change Registration (SSCR).
B. Changes are saved to tasks of type "SAP".
C. Changes can only be transported if the appropriate entries exist in tables TXCOM and T000.
D. Changes will require adjustment during future system upgrades.
E. Changes will never require adjustment during future system upgrades.
45 - What type of table is of type 'TRANSP'?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. A table used for Transporting data between SAP systems.
B. A table which is reproduced 1:1 in the database.
C. A table which is invisible for native SQL.
D. A table which is accessible for all SAP clients.
46 - Which of the following are not ABAP/4 Repository objects?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Tables
B. Matchcodes
C. Domains
D. Structures
E. System messages
47 - Repository objects are developed and maintained using the:
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Customizing Organizer
B. ABAP/4 Development Workbench
C. Data Modeler
D. Screen Painter
E. Business Engineering Workbench
48 - Structures and their attributes which do not have records in the database are what kind of tables?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Cluster tables
B. Pool tables
C. Internal tables
D. External tables
49 - In terms of the ABAP/4 Development Workbench, what is a variant?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Program selection criteria which can be stored for later use with the same report.
B. A report which was developed by modifying another report.
C. A report which can be used in different R/3 clients.
D. The R/3 release being used during report creation.
50 - Which of the following is true in terms of configuring the R/3 Spool Service?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Each R/3 instance must have a locally defined spool service.
B. Each R/3 instance may have a locally defined spool service.
C. There must be exactly 1 spool service per SAP System.
D. The spool service must be installed on the central R/3 instance.
51 - Which of the following is true in terms of configuring the R/3 Message Service?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Each R/3 instance must have a locally running message service.
B. The host where the message service runs is defined in the database parameter profile.
C. There must be exactly 1 message service per SAP System.
D. The message service must run on the R/3 Central Instance.
52 - In a networked R/3 System environment consisting of 1 database host and 1 or more Application Servers, 1 Application Server functions as the Update work process server.
Which parameter file contains, by SAP convention, the rdisp/vbname profile parameter?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. The Start profile of the Central Instance host.
B. The global Default profile of the Central Instance host.
C. The Instance profile of the Central Instance host.
D. The SAPGUI parameter profile of one of the Dialog Instance hosts.
E. The database configuration parameter file.
53 - Per SAP convention, which R/3 System profile contains the rdisp/wp_no_vb profile parameter?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. The Start profile.
B. The Global Default profile.
C. The Instance profile.
D. The SAPGUI parameter profile.
E. The database configuration parameter file.
54 - Which traces can be switched on/off without restarting the Instance?
Note: There is more than one right answer! Click on the buttons next to the right answers.
A. ABAP/4 Trace
B. SQL Trace
C. SYSLOG Trace
D. Dispatcher Trace
55 - Which R/3 System transaction is used to view the system log?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. SP01
B. SM21
C. SM37
D. SPAD
56 - Which of the following statements is true for when the processing of an Update task is interrupted?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. The complete R/3 System halts until the problem situation is resolved
B. Interruption of V1 or V2 update tasks will cause a rollback of the already executed database changes, a log entry is made in the VBLOG, and no further V1 or V2 updates will be made until the problem is resolved. An error message is sent to the user.
C. Interruption of V1 tasks will cause a rollback of the already executed database changes, a log entry is made in the VBLOG, and no further V1 or V2 updates will be made until the problem is resolved. An error message is sent to the user.
D. Interruption of V2 tasks will cause a rollback of the already executed database changes, a log entry is made in the VBLOG, and no further V1 or V2 updates will be made until the problem is resolved. An error message is sent to the user.
E. Interruption of V2 tasks will cause a rollback of the already executed database changes, a log entry is made in the VBLOG, and other V1 and V2 updates may continue to be made. An error message is sent to the user.
57 - How does setting the parameter rdisp/TRACE to trace level 2 change the R/3 SYSLOG?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. The rdisp/TRACE output is not listed in the SYSLOG and so has no effect.
B. The SYSLOG contains errors, warnings and informational messages depending on the trace level.
C. Database error logging is enabled but the R/3 SYSLOG is not affected.
D. Depending on the Trace level, SYSLOG messages become more or less detailed.
58 - What happens when the SYSLOG file becomes full?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. The system halts and sends an error message.
B. The SYSLOG switches and logging continues.
C. The SYSLOG file is overwritten restarting with block 0.
D. No more error messages will be logged.
59 - How should an update-intensive table be buffered?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. 100%
B. generic
C. partial
D. not at all
60 - What can be concluded from the values shown in areas 1 and 2 of this SAP System Process Overview?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Although the workload is equally distributed, there is a performance bottleneck because of the excessive R/3 System paging and rolling.
B. We are encountering an I/O bottleneck. The system needs excessive CPU resources to perform I/O operations.
C. The system is using all the available resources, however there is no serious performance problem.
61 - The CPU metrics, %user, %system, and %idle, are global CPU metrics. The %user expresses the percentage of user processes in user mode, the %system expresses the percentage of processes in kernel mode (system calls), and %idle expresses the percentage of non-CPU activity.
A high %system CPU utilization value as shown in this transaction ST06 screen always expresses system resource problems.
Which of the following is a symptom of high %system CPU utilization?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Memory management
B. I/O management
C. Heavy IPC system call rate, process creation, heavy network traffic
62 - Based upon the information in the indicated area of this Operating System Performance Monitor screen (ST06), what does the Load Average value express?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. It is a metric that depends on the percentage of the CPU, I/O and LAN resources being utilized.
B. The 1, 5, and 15 minute averages of the count of processes in the run queue of the operating system.
C. The load average value shows the 1, 5, 15 minute averages of the system swapping activity.
D. The load average value shows the 1, 5, 15 minute averages of the operating system uptime.
63 - Which of the following statements describes the average response time as indicated in this Workload Analysis screen?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Average response time is equal to or less than the sum of CPU time, plus wait time, plus load time, plus database request time.
B. Average response time is equal to or less than the CPU time.
C. Average response time is equal to the sum of CPU time, plus wait time, plus load time, plus database request time, plus time in the frontend process.
64 - Based upon the information in the indicated area of the Workload Analysis screen, which of the following statements is true about Average Wait Time?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Average Wait Time is normally 80% of the average response time.
B. Average Wait Time is normally 50% of the average response time.
C. Average Wait Time is normally less than 5% of the average response time.
65 - This Workload Analysis screen shows an example of poor response time caused from a high average wait time. Which of the following statements explains why the average wait time could be so high?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. R/3 programs are waiting a long time to get free workprocesses because system resources are limited.
B. R/3 programs are staying a long time inside of workprocesses because they are waiting for internal R/3 System events.
C. R/3 programs are waiting a long time to get free workprocesses because the R/3 programs are running with low priorities.
66 - Based upon the information indicated in area 1 and 2 of this Operating System Monitor screen, which of the following is true?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. System CPU resources are not sufficient. A wait situation is possible when many processes are requesting CPU resources.
B. CPU resources are adequate. No performance problems will be encountered.
C. CPU resources are adequate, but performance problems will be encountered because of wait situations sharing the resources.
67 - Based upon the information in areas 1 - 3 of this R/3 System Monitoring screen, which of the following statements is true?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. The "load" program consumes much of the available CPU resources.
B. The "load" program consumes much of the available I/O resources.
C. The "load" program cannot be considered a performance degradation factor.
68 - This performance Analysis screen shows a case of excessive object swapping even though there is apparently enough free space in the Program Buffer.
Based upon the information indicated, which of the following statements explains why there is so much swapping?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
The indication of object swapping is false and does not express the current situation.
There is enough free space but not enough directory entries.
The available free space is fragmented and the fragments are not big enough to hold the new programs.
69 - Which of the following is NOT true of the SAProuter?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
The SAProuter is an application level gateway.
The SAProuter acts as a secure gateway into and out of a customer's SAP environment.
SAProuter will only accept incoming data if it conforms to SAP's own internal protocol and if it is coming in over a predefined port number from a predefined internet address.
SAProuter installation is mandatory for connection to the SAP Online Service System (OSS).
SAProuter installation is not mandatory for connection to the SAP Online Service System (OSS).
70 - For complete network security, SAProuter must be installed together with:
Click on the button next to the right answer.
Microsoft Windows NT
UNIX
A hardware router.
SAProuter offers complete network security without additional hardware investment.
A Worldwide Web implementation strategy.
71 - Name the R/3 System transaction used for printing and spool administration.
Click on the button next to the right answer.
SM50
SM51
SPAD
SP01
SM37
72 - Printing in the R/3 System is handled by the TemSe (storage for Temporary Sequential data) and spool components. Which of the following is NOT true:
Click on the button next to the right answer.
The TemSe only stores the output request data.
The instance parameter, rspo/store_location, determines whether TemSe data is stored in the database or in an operating system file.
TemSe data stored in an operating system file must be backed-up separately from the database data.
TemSe data stored in the database can be accessed faster by the host operating system spooler than when it is stored in a file.
TemSe data stored in the database is backed-up when regular database backups are done.
73 - Which of the R/3 spool device authorization templates schould be used for creating an authorization profile with a defined set of spool output devices?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
S_SPO_DEV_CUST
S_SCRP_TALL
S_SPO_DEV_AL
S_SPO_ACT
S_SPO_ALL
74 - Which of the following does NOT apply to time-critical printing?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
Use dedicated application servers with their own spool work process.
Print as much as possible over a remote connection.
Limit device authorization for critical printer to selected users.
Implement high availability practices for the host spool system.
Use an appropriate naming convention for time-critical printers.
75 - Which of the following does NOT apply to printing in a high-security environment?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
Use a dedicated printer assigned to a specific R/3 application server with an active spool work process.
Assign selected users or user groups exclusive access to a printer and allow no authorizations for that printer to other users.
Physically secure the printer in a room with controlled access.
Modify the rspo/store_location parameter so that print data will be stored in an operating system file rather than in the database.
Activate "Delete upon Completion" in the R/3 spool administration to make spool data inaccessible to users through the output controller.
76 - What is the R/3 Workbench Organizer used for?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
To send patches from SAP to the customers.
To detect and correct errors in the SAP data transfer modules.
To record the creation and modification of repository objects.
It is only used when upgrading R/3 Systems.
77 - When must the Workbench Organizer be configured?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
After all Central and Dialog instance installations.
Whenever a new R/3 Central Instance with database is installed.
Immediately after a database software version update.
After all R/3 release level upgrades but not after correction level upgrades.
78 - Which R/3 facility is used to release a correction/repair?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
Workbench Organizer
Transaction SE06
Development Workbench
Customizing Organizer
79 - What is configured in the transport parameter file?
Note: There is more than one right answer! Click on the buttons next to the right answers.
The transport parameters for all R/3 central and dialog instances.
The database host for each of the systems in the system landscape.
The R/3 Dialog Instance startup parameters.
The location of the transport directory.
80 - If you repair an SAP object, what will happen if you specifiy it as a "Local Private Object"?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
The repair cannot be transported.
The repair may be downloaded to become an object accessible at the native database level.
The repair will only be active for the user who creates the repair.
The "Local Private Object" option will be used when the repair is transported.
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Data Dictionary
B. Message server
C. Gateway service
D. Dispatcher
2 - What does "enqueue" and "dequeue" mean?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Puts/reads messages in the SAP message queue.
B. Locks/unlocks SAP objects during database updates.
C. Enables/disables SAP print queues.
D. Reads/writes update messages in the database.
3 - Update workprocesses may be categorized as V1 or V2. Which of the 2 types of Update workprocesses has priority?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. V1 and V2 workprocesses are handled simultaneously without priority.
B. V1 and V2 workprocesses are handled on a first-in-first-out basis.
C. Processing priority is determined by the rdisp/wp_no_vb profile parameter.
D. V1 workprocesses have priority.
E. V2 workprocesses have priority.
4 - If a user is logged on to a server group, how are dialog work processes assigned to this user?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. The user always remains assigned to the same dialog work process, regardless of server load.
B. Depending on the load of the servers, different dialog work processes of the same R/3 Instance will be assigned to the user.
C. Depending on the load of the servers, different dialog work processes of different instances will be assigned to this user.
D. It is not possible to logon to a server group.
5 - If an R/3 System has the dialog, update, enqueue, background, message, gateway and spool services installed using Instance ID 01 and connects to a database using the database system identifier C11, what is the R/3 System Instance name?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. DVBMGS01_C11
B. DVEBMGS
C. DVEBMGS01_C11
D. DVEBMS01_C11
6 - What controls R/3 System user authorizations and default id values?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. User administration at the operating system level.
B. The ABAP/4 Dictionary.
C. The Developer's Workbench.
D. The R/3 System user master record.
E. The Workbench Organizer.
7 - Which of the following is NOT true of the R/3 System Authorization concept?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Authorizations are used to administer and assign access rights to data and functions in the R/3 System.
B. Authorizations are used to set up users in the R/3 System.
C. Users defined in the R/3 System automatically receive full operating system user privileges.
D. Access to specific R/3 data can be defined using authorizations.
E. R/3 objects may have several authorizations assigned.
8 - When you create a new user, to which client may the user log on?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. All clients.
B. Only in the client where the user was created.
C. In the client where the user was created and in client 000.
D. In the client where the user was created and in client 001.
9 - When an SAP instance switches to a new operation mode which has no configured background tasks, what happens to any active background processes at the time of the switch?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. All active batch processes are aborted.
B. All batch processes are suspended and are resumed when batch services become available.
C. All active batch processes finish to completion before the operation mode is switched.
D. All active batch processes complete and the operation mode does not switch.
10 - Which of the following is NOT true of event controlled background processing in R/3?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. An event can be triggered from within R/3 by ABAP/4 programs.
B. An event in R/3 can be triggered from outside of the R/3 System by using the operating system level program, sapevt.
C. It is not necessary for the R/3 System to be active for events to be triggered.
D. Events are used internally by the R/3 System and cannot be raised by users.
E. The sapevt program can start the event scheduler in R/3 which checks the job queue for scheduled jobs waiting for this event and then starts these jobs.
11 - What are 2 ways to start an ABAP/4 program?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. In online or in offline mode.
B. In online or in background mode.
C. As local or as remote programs.
D. ABAP/4 programs can only be started online.
E. As a client or as a server program.
12 - What is the name of the program at the operating system level which is used when an ABAP/4 program is used to trigger an external program?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. disp+work
B. gwrd
C. sapevt
D. sapxpg
E. saposcol
13 - With which operating system level program do external programs communicate when triggering R/3 System events?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. disp+work
B. gwrd
C. sapevt
D. sapxpg
E. saposcol
14 - In an R/3 transport environment the transport layer defines the transport route between the integration system and which other system?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Delivery system
B. Consolidation system
C. Customizing system
D. Demo system
E. Database management system
15 - Which of the following is NOT true of a quality assurance system in a threesystem landscape?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Original objects cannot be transported to a quality assurance system.
B. Another name for a quality assurance system is "Consolidation" system.
C. The quality assurance system is where the final verification and testing of all implementation efforts occurs.
D. Development errors should be corrected in the quality assurance system and transported to the development system.
E. Only repairs are possible in the quality assurance system. All corrections must be transported from the development system.
16 - Transaction SE06 provides functions for configuring the Workbench Organizer (WBO) in the SAP System. Which of the following is NOT performed by the SE06 transaction?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Automatic generation of transport system table entries for complex system landscapes.
B. Generate a standard WBO configuration.
C. Maintain the WBO configuration.
D. Displays the current WBO configuration.
E. Sets the system change option.
17 - Which of the following SAP tables defines the transport layer for distributing the development class objects among the systems in a system landscape?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. TSYST
B. TASYS
C. DEVL
D. TDEVC
E. TWSYS
18 - Which of the following statements regarding a single system landscape is NOT true?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Maintenance level and release upgrades may be applied.
B. Only local transports may be created.
C. A single-system landscape is suitable for demonstrations and training.
D. A single system landscape is recommended for production use as long as all development remains in client 001.
E. The Workbench Organizer (WBO) configuration of a single system landscape may be changed to define the system as a member of a multi-system landscape when subsequent systems are installed.
19 - Which of the following statements about the R/3 transport directory is correct?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. The transport directory physical location is dependent upon which database is being used.
B. SAP recommends that a separate transport directory be local on each R/3 System.
C. The transport directory may not be shared among R/3 Systems because it will cause database and filesystem inconsistencies.
D. The use of a common transport directory is recommended by SAP because it facilitates transport functionality among systems in a multi-system landscape.
20 - Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Clients can be copied within a single R/3 System.
B. Clients can be copied between R/3 Systems of the same release.
C. User master records can be copied between clients.
D. The Client Copy tools support the copying of printer definitions between clients.
21 - What is the correct System Change Option for a quality assurance system?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Only original objects.
B. All customer objects.
C. All objects.
D. Objects cannot be changed.
22 - What is the recommended System Change Option for a production system?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Only original objects.
B. All customer objects.
C. All objects.
D. Objects cannot be changed.
23 - Which of the following is true of creating new clients within an R/3 System?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Customizing and repository objects from a source client are copied to the new client using the client copy tool.
B. The client transport tool can be used to simultaneously transfer multiple SAP clients from one R/3 System to another in a single action.
C. Log files indicating the success of a new client creation are stored in the home directory of the user initiating the copy.
D. Profiles define the types of client data to be copied.
E. Remote client copies generate large data files at the operating system level.
24 - What is the minimum number of Dialog Work Processes in an SAP Instance?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Central Instance: 0 , Dialog Instance: 0
B. Central Instance: 0 , Dialog Instance: 1
C. Central Instance: 2 , Dialog Instance: 1
D. Central Instance: 2 , Dialog Instance: 2
25 - Which of the following is true of operation modes in R/3?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Productive operation modes may only be switched manually.
B. Test operation modes may be switched manually or periodically.
C. Operation modes can be used to startup/shutdown SAP instances.
D. Operation modes can be scheduled for specific dates and times.
E. Operation modes must be defined as either productive, test or demo.
26 - Which transaction may be used to list all users who are logged on to all the R/3 instances in an SAP System group?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. RZ04
B. SE38
C. AL08
D. SM21
27 - What is the user name and password for the R/3 System administrator in a newly installed system (Clients 000 and 001)?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. User name: SAP*, password: ddic
B. User name: SAP*, password: init
C. User name: SAP*, password: 06071992
D. User name: SAP*, password: manager
E. User name: SAP*, password: 19920706
28 - What is the user name and password for the R/3 System data dictionary administrator in a newly installed system (Clients 000 and 001)?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. User name: SAP*, password: ddic
B. User name: DDIC, password: init
C. User name: DDIC, password: manager
D. User name: DDIC, password: 06071992
E. User name: DDIC, password: 19920706
29 - Which of the following is true in terms of configuring the R/3 Enqueue Service?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Each R/3 instance may have a locally running enqueue service.
B. The host where the enqueue service runs is defined in the startup profile.
C. There must be exactly 1 enqueue service per SAP System.
D. The enqueue service must be installed on the R/3 Central instance.
30 - Which table must be empty after an SAP Upgrade has finished?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. TBATG
B. TASYS
C. TSYST
D. TADIR
E. TXCOM
31 - After an ABAP/4 Dictionary object has been modified, what must be done before it is usable by application programs?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. It must be transported to all the other R/3 hosts.
B. It must be copied to all other R/3 clients.
C. It must be activated.
D. The R/3 instance must be restarted to flag the program's availability.
32 - What is the sequence that should be used when upgrading R/3 Systems in a multi-system landscape environment?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. The systems should be upgraded in the sequence defined in the transport path.
B. All the systems should be upgraded simultaneously to save time.
C. The production system should be upgraded first.
D. The sequence depends upon the database backup implementation timetable.
E. The upgrade sequence is dependent upon the project managers availability.
33 - Which of the following is NOT a factor in R/3 upgrade planning strategy?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Determine the sequence of upgrading all systems in the system group.
B. System downtime for data backups before and after the upgrade.
C. Duration of the upgrade.
D. Whether or not all SAP prerequisites can be met prior to the upgrade.
E. Whether or not all of the R/3 user frontend PC's use Microsoft Windows 95 or Windows for Workgroups.
34 - Which of the following is NOT true concerning the SPDD transaction?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. ABAP/4 Dictionary objects are adjusted during an upgrade using the SPDD transaction.
B. Transaction SPDD should be executed as soon as the R3up upgrade control program indicates.
C. The objects affected by SPDD adjustments are domains, data elements, and tables.
D. SPDD adjustments are not necessary unless changes have been made to the SAP standard ABAP/4 Dictionary objects. Objects in the customer name range are not processed.
E. All SPDD adjustments should be done by the R/3 System user DDIC and not by a normal user.
35 - Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning the SPAU transaction?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. After completion of an upgrade, you have a limited time period for executing transaction SPAU without needing an SSCR key for adjusted objects.
B. Adjustment of ABAP/4 Repository objects is carried out with the help of the SPAU transaction.
C. The R3up program instructs the user to start SPAU at the end of an upgrade.
D. Objects adjusted by SPAU should be saved to a single change request for transport to subsequent systems.
E. Adjustment of ABAP/4 Dictionary objects (domains, data elements, and tables) is done using the SPAU transaction.
36 - To perform any modification in an R/3 System (release 3.0), the modification must be registered with the SAP Software Change Registration (SSCR).
Which of the following DOES NOT apply to SSCR?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Developers must be registered in the SAP OSS System.
B. All modifications must be registered in the OSS System.
C. The customer's R/3 System must have a correctly installed SAP license.
D. The customer must fax an object modification request to SAP.
E. The R/3 installation number for the system must be valid.
37 - Which of the following is NOT true of the SAP Enhancement Concept?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. It allows customers to add their own functionality to SAP standard business applications.
B. Program and menu exits are a fundamental component of the Enhancement Concept.
C. SAP has created user exits for specific programs, screens, fields and menus within the standard R/3 applications.
D. Customers may create their own exits without notifying SAP because the user exits lie in the customer name range.
E. Exits do not exist for all programs, screens and menues.
38 - Does an SAP owned object have to be assigned to a customer development class in order to be modified?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Yes. A modification should be assigned to a customer development class. This eliminates the need for a modification adjustment during the upgrade process.
B. No. The object belongs to SAP and is considered standard functionality. The development class provides the object with its needed ownership and must not change.
C. Yes. An automatic pop-up window forces a developer to assign a changed SAP object to a new development class.
D. It does not matter because of the flexibility of the system parameter option assignment scheme.
E. No. It will be assigned to a new development class automatically.
39 - At which stage in the upgrade process is it necessary to perform an ABAP/4 Dictionary adjustment?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Immediately following the import of the new ABAP/4 Dictionary.
B. After running the PREPARE script and reviewing the suggestions in the CHECK.log file.
C. This step is performed automatically by ADJUSTIMP and no user interaction is necessary.
D. As part of the post-upgrade procedure.
E. Within 14 days after an upgrade is finished.
40 - A repository switch upgrade of an R/3 System involves:
Note: There is more than one right answer! Click on the buttons next to the right answers.
A. Comparing all modifications with the new SAP standard.
B. Replacing the current customer repository with the new SAP standard.
C. System downtime from the start of the upgrade process.
D. Merging the customer's current SAP repository with the new SAP standard.
E. Adjusting all customer developed objects with new and improved program logic.
41 - Which of the following statements is NOT true of how customers can avoid making modifications to SAP standard objects?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Make use of enhancement concepts such as program exits and menu exits.
B. Take advantage of the table append technology when changing table definitions.
C. Use Hot Packages to perform program corrections rather than keying in coding changes manually.
D. Create their own repository objects in order to provide additional functionality.
E. Modify their business processes so that the standard SAP software will fulfill all of their requirements.
42 - Which of the following is NOT true concerning R/3 Upgrade Notes?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Reading R/3 Notes is absolutely essential before beginning an R/3 upgrade.
B. Notes are available from the SAP Online Service System (OSS) or may be requested by fax from SAP.
C. Notes are optional documents which are only used for marketing information and contain no useful information for upgrades.
D. Notes are updated continually as new upgrade information becomes known. They should be downloaded prior to each upgrade.
E. Notes may contain references to other R/3 Notes which may also need to be referenced.
43 - Which of the following is NOT true of Hot Packages?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Hot Packages provide program error corrections as part of the SAP Online Correction Services.
B. Hot Packages are bundles of corrections in the ABAP/4 Repository of the R/3 Software.
C. Each Hot Package is linked to R/3 Notes where the corrected program errors are explained.
D. Hot Packages should be imported into an R/3 System as soon as they are available.
E. Hot Packages are only for demonstration purposes and as optional system add-ons and will not have any effect on system operations.
44 - Which of the following statements is true of all changes made to SAP owned objects?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Changes must not be registered with SAP Software Change Registration (SSCR).
B. Changes are saved to tasks of type "SAP".
C. Changes can only be transported if the appropriate entries exist in tables TXCOM and T000.
D. Changes will require adjustment during future system upgrades.
E. Changes will never require adjustment during future system upgrades.
45 - What type of table is of type 'TRANSP'?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. A table used for Transporting data between SAP systems.
B. A table which is reproduced 1:1 in the database.
C. A table which is invisible for native SQL.
D. A table which is accessible for all SAP clients.
46 - Which of the following are not ABAP/4 Repository objects?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Tables
B. Matchcodes
C. Domains
D. Structures
E. System messages
47 - Repository objects are developed and maintained using the:
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Customizing Organizer
B. ABAP/4 Development Workbench
C. Data Modeler
D. Screen Painter
E. Business Engineering Workbench
48 - Structures and their attributes which do not have records in the database are what kind of tables?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Cluster tables
B. Pool tables
C. Internal tables
D. External tables
49 - In terms of the ABAP/4 Development Workbench, what is a variant?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Program selection criteria which can be stored for later use with the same report.
B. A report which was developed by modifying another report.
C. A report which can be used in different R/3 clients.
D. The R/3 release being used during report creation.
50 - Which of the following is true in terms of configuring the R/3 Spool Service?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Each R/3 instance must have a locally defined spool service.
B. Each R/3 instance may have a locally defined spool service.
C. There must be exactly 1 spool service per SAP System.
D. The spool service must be installed on the central R/3 instance.
51 - Which of the following is true in terms of configuring the R/3 Message Service?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Each R/3 instance must have a locally running message service.
B. The host where the message service runs is defined in the database parameter profile.
C. There must be exactly 1 message service per SAP System.
D. The message service must run on the R/3 Central Instance.
52 - In a networked R/3 System environment consisting of 1 database host and 1 or more Application Servers, 1 Application Server functions as the Update work process server.
Which parameter file contains, by SAP convention, the rdisp/vbname profile parameter?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. The Start profile of the Central Instance host.
B. The global Default profile of the Central Instance host.
C. The Instance profile of the Central Instance host.
D. The SAPGUI parameter profile of one of the Dialog Instance hosts.
E. The database configuration parameter file.
53 - Per SAP convention, which R/3 System profile contains the rdisp/wp_no_vb profile parameter?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. The Start profile.
B. The Global Default profile.
C. The Instance profile.
D. The SAPGUI parameter profile.
E. The database configuration parameter file.
54 - Which traces can be switched on/off without restarting the Instance?
Note: There is more than one right answer! Click on the buttons next to the right answers.
A. ABAP/4 Trace
B. SQL Trace
C. SYSLOG Trace
D. Dispatcher Trace
55 - Which R/3 System transaction is used to view the system log?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. SP01
B. SM21
C. SM37
D. SPAD
56 - Which of the following statements is true for when the processing of an Update task is interrupted?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. The complete R/3 System halts until the problem situation is resolved
B. Interruption of V1 or V2 update tasks will cause a rollback of the already executed database changes, a log entry is made in the VBLOG, and no further V1 or V2 updates will be made until the problem is resolved. An error message is sent to the user.
C. Interruption of V1 tasks will cause a rollback of the already executed database changes, a log entry is made in the VBLOG, and no further V1 or V2 updates will be made until the problem is resolved. An error message is sent to the user.
D. Interruption of V2 tasks will cause a rollback of the already executed database changes, a log entry is made in the VBLOG, and no further V1 or V2 updates will be made until the problem is resolved. An error message is sent to the user.
E. Interruption of V2 tasks will cause a rollback of the already executed database changes, a log entry is made in the VBLOG, and other V1 and V2 updates may continue to be made. An error message is sent to the user.
57 - How does setting the parameter rdisp/TRACE to trace level 2 change the R/3 SYSLOG?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. The rdisp/TRACE output is not listed in the SYSLOG and so has no effect.
B. The SYSLOG contains errors, warnings and informational messages depending on the trace level.
C. Database error logging is enabled but the R/3 SYSLOG is not affected.
D. Depending on the Trace level, SYSLOG messages become more or less detailed.
58 - What happens when the SYSLOG file becomes full?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. The system halts and sends an error message.
B. The SYSLOG switches and logging continues.
C. The SYSLOG file is overwritten restarting with block 0.
D. No more error messages will be logged.
59 - How should an update-intensive table be buffered?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. 100%
B. generic
C. partial
D. not at all
60 - What can be concluded from the values shown in areas 1 and 2 of this SAP System Process Overview?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Although the workload is equally distributed, there is a performance bottleneck because of the excessive R/3 System paging and rolling.
B. We are encountering an I/O bottleneck. The system needs excessive CPU resources to perform I/O operations.
C. The system is using all the available resources, however there is no serious performance problem.
61 - The CPU metrics, %user, %system, and %idle, are global CPU metrics. The %user expresses the percentage of user processes in user mode, the %system expresses the percentage of processes in kernel mode (system calls), and %idle expresses the percentage of non-CPU activity.
A high %system CPU utilization value as shown in this transaction ST06 screen always expresses system resource problems.
Which of the following is a symptom of high %system CPU utilization?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Memory management
B. I/O management
C. Heavy IPC system call rate, process creation, heavy network traffic
62 - Based upon the information in the indicated area of this Operating System Performance Monitor screen (ST06), what does the Load Average value express?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. It is a metric that depends on the percentage of the CPU, I/O and LAN resources being utilized.
B. The 1, 5, and 15 minute averages of the count of processes in the run queue of the operating system.
C. The load average value shows the 1, 5, 15 minute averages of the system swapping activity.
D. The load average value shows the 1, 5, 15 minute averages of the operating system uptime.
63 - Which of the following statements describes the average response time as indicated in this Workload Analysis screen?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Average response time is equal to or less than the sum of CPU time, plus wait time, plus load time, plus database request time.
B. Average response time is equal to or less than the CPU time.
C. Average response time is equal to the sum of CPU time, plus wait time, plus load time, plus database request time, plus time in the frontend process.
64 - Based upon the information in the indicated area of the Workload Analysis screen, which of the following statements is true about Average Wait Time?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. Average Wait Time is normally 80% of the average response time.
B. Average Wait Time is normally 50% of the average response time.
C. Average Wait Time is normally less than 5% of the average response time.
65 - This Workload Analysis screen shows an example of poor response time caused from a high average wait time. Which of the following statements explains why the average wait time could be so high?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. R/3 programs are waiting a long time to get free workprocesses because system resources are limited.
B. R/3 programs are staying a long time inside of workprocesses because they are waiting for internal R/3 System events.
C. R/3 programs are waiting a long time to get free workprocesses because the R/3 programs are running with low priorities.
66 - Based upon the information indicated in area 1 and 2 of this Operating System Monitor screen, which of the following is true?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. System CPU resources are not sufficient. A wait situation is possible when many processes are requesting CPU resources.
B. CPU resources are adequate. No performance problems will be encountered.
C. CPU resources are adequate, but performance problems will be encountered because of wait situations sharing the resources.
67 - Based upon the information in areas 1 - 3 of this R/3 System Monitoring screen, which of the following statements is true?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
A. The "load" program consumes much of the available CPU resources.
B. The "load" program consumes much of the available I/O resources.
C. The "load" program cannot be considered a performance degradation factor.
68 - This performance Analysis screen shows a case of excessive object swapping even though there is apparently enough free space in the Program Buffer.
Based upon the information indicated, which of the following statements explains why there is so much swapping?
Click on the button next to the right answer.
The indication of object swapping is false and does not express the current situation.
There is enough free space but not enough directory entries.
The available free space is fragmented and the fragments are not big enough to hold the new programs.
69 - Which of the following is NOT true of the SAProuter?
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The SAProuter is an application level gateway.
The SAProuter acts as a secure gateway into and out of a customer's SAP environment.
SAProuter will only accept incoming data if it conforms to SAP's own internal protocol and if it is coming in over a predefined port number from a predefined internet address.
SAProuter installation is mandatory for connection to the SAP Online Service System (OSS).
SAProuter installation is not mandatory for connection to the SAP Online Service System (OSS).
70 - For complete network security, SAProuter must be installed together with:
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Microsoft Windows NT
UNIX
A hardware router.
SAProuter offers complete network security without additional hardware investment.
A Worldwide Web implementation strategy.
71 - Name the R/3 System transaction used for printing and spool administration.
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SM50
SM51
SPAD
SP01
SM37
72 - Printing in the R/3 System is handled by the TemSe (storage for Temporary Sequential data) and spool components. Which of the following is NOT true:
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The TemSe only stores the output request data.
The instance parameter, rspo/store_location, determines whether TemSe data is stored in the database or in an operating system file.
TemSe data stored in an operating system file must be backed-up separately from the database data.
TemSe data stored in the database can be accessed faster by the host operating system spooler than when it is stored in a file.
TemSe data stored in the database is backed-up when regular database backups are done.
73 - Which of the R/3 spool device authorization templates schould be used for creating an authorization profile with a defined set of spool output devices?
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S_SPO_DEV_CUST
S_SCRP_TALL
S_SPO_DEV_AL
S_SPO_ACT
S_SPO_ALL
74 - Which of the following does NOT apply to time-critical printing?
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Use dedicated application servers with their own spool work process.
Print as much as possible over a remote connection.
Limit device authorization for critical printer to selected users.
Implement high availability practices for the host spool system.
Use an appropriate naming convention for time-critical printers.
75 - Which of the following does NOT apply to printing in a high-security environment?
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Use a dedicated printer assigned to a specific R/3 application server with an active spool work process.
Assign selected users or user groups exclusive access to a printer and allow no authorizations for that printer to other users.
Physically secure the printer in a room with controlled access.
Modify the rspo/store_location parameter so that print data will be stored in an operating system file rather than in the database.
Activate "Delete upon Completion" in the R/3 spool administration to make spool data inaccessible to users through the output controller.
76 - What is the R/3 Workbench Organizer used for?
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To send patches from SAP to the customers.
To detect and correct errors in the SAP data transfer modules.
To record the creation and modification of repository objects.
It is only used when upgrading R/3 Systems.
77 - When must the Workbench Organizer be configured?
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After all Central and Dialog instance installations.
Whenever a new R/3 Central Instance with database is installed.
Immediately after a database software version update.
After all R/3 release level upgrades but not after correction level upgrades.
78 - Which R/3 facility is used to release a correction/repair?
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Workbench Organizer
Transaction SE06
Development Workbench
Customizing Organizer
79 - What is configured in the transport parameter file?
Note: There is more than one right answer! Click on the buttons next to the right answers.
The transport parameters for all R/3 central and dialog instances.
The database host for each of the systems in the system landscape.
The R/3 Dialog Instance startup parameters.
The location of the transport directory.
80 - If you repair an SAP object, what will happen if you specifiy it as a "Local Private Object"?
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The repair cannot be transported.
The repair may be downloaded to become an object accessible at the native database level.
The repair will only be active for the user who creates the repair.
The "Local Private Object" option will be used when the repair is transported.
SAP BDC
1. What is full form of BDC Session?
Batch Data Communication Session.
2. What are the steps in a BDC session?
The first step in a BDC session is to identify the screens of the transaction that the program will process. Next step is to write a program to build the BDC table that will be used to submit the data to SAP. The final step is to submit the BDC table to the system in the batch mode or as a single transaction by the CALL TRANSACTION command.
3. How do you find the information on the current screen?
The information on the current screen can be found by SYSTEM à STATUS command from any menu.
4. How do you save data in BDC tables?
The data in BDC tables is saved by using the field name ‘BDC_OKCODE’ and field value of ‘/11’.
5. What is the last entry in all BDC tables?
In all BDC tables the last entry is to save the data by using the field name BDC_OKCODE and a field value of ‘/11’.
6. What is a multiple line field?
A multiple line field is a special kind of field which allows the user to enter multiple lines of data into it.
7. How do you populate data into a multiple line field?
To populate data into a multiple line field, an index is added to the field name to indicate which line is to be populated by the BDC session (Line index).
8. Write the BDC table structure.
BDC table structure
FIELD TYPE DESCRIPTION
Program CHAR (8) Program name of transaction.
DynPro CHAR (4) Screen number of transaction.
DynBegin CHAR (1) Indicator for new screen.
Fnam CHAR (35) Name of database field from screen.
Fval CHAR (80) Value to submit to field.
9. Does the CALL TRANSACTION method allow multiple transactions to be processed by SAP?
No. The CALL TRANSACTION method allows only a single transaction to be processed by SAP.
10. Does the BDC-INSERT function allow multiple transactions to be processed by SAP?
Yes.
11. What is the syntax for ‘CALL TRANSACTION’?
CALL TRANSACTION trans [ using bdctab MODE mode ].
Three possible entries are there for MODE.
A - Show all screens.
E - Show only screens with errors.
N - Show no screens.
Batch Data Communication Session.
2. What are the steps in a BDC session?
The first step in a BDC session is to identify the screens of the transaction that the program will process. Next step is to write a program to build the BDC table that will be used to submit the data to SAP. The final step is to submit the BDC table to the system in the batch mode or as a single transaction by the CALL TRANSACTION command.
3. How do you find the information on the current screen?
The information on the current screen can be found by SYSTEM à STATUS command from any menu.
4. How do you save data in BDC tables?
The data in BDC tables is saved by using the field name ‘BDC_OKCODE’ and field value of ‘/11’.
5. What is the last entry in all BDC tables?
In all BDC tables the last entry is to save the data by using the field name BDC_OKCODE and a field value of ‘/11’.
6. What is a multiple line field?
A multiple line field is a special kind of field which allows the user to enter multiple lines of data into it.
7. How do you populate data into a multiple line field?
To populate data into a multiple line field, an index is added to the field name to indicate which line is to be populated by the BDC session (Line index).
8. Write the BDC table structure.
BDC table structure
FIELD TYPE DESCRIPTION
Program CHAR (8) Program name of transaction.
DynPro CHAR (4) Screen number of transaction.
DynBegin CHAR (1) Indicator for new screen.
Fnam CHAR (35) Name of database field from screen.
Fval CHAR (80) Value to submit to field.
9. Does the CALL TRANSACTION method allow multiple transactions to be processed by SAP?
No. The CALL TRANSACTION method allows only a single transaction to be processed by SAP.
10. Does the BDC-INSERT function allow multiple transactions to be processed by SAP?
Yes.
11. What is the syntax for ‘CALL TRANSACTION’?
CALL TRANSACTION trans [ using bdctab MODE mode ].
Three possible entries are there for MODE.
A - Show all screens.
E - Show only screens with errors.
N - Show no screens.
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